BACE EXAM Flashcards

Complimentary base pairing between two DNA strands is due to the formation of:

Hydrogen Bonds

Phosphodiester bonds

Ionic bonds

Operon bonds

Cellulose is an important raw material for textiles and a variety of other industries. Which of the following is a function of polysaccharides in the cell?

Transporting molecules throughout the cell

Recognition of receptor proteins on other cells

Providing structure and energy storage within cells

All of the above

Lipids are composed mainly of which of the following atoms?

Oxygen and nitrogen

Hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen

Carbon and hydrogen

Carbon, nitrogen and sulfur

A solute is the dissolved matter in a solution.

True

False

Process which uses oxygen as a raw material.

Aerobic Respiration

Anaerobic Respiration

Neither Aerobic and Anaerobic Respiration

Both Aerobic and Anaerobic Respiration

Process in which glucose is utilized by a cell.

Aerobic Respiration

Anaerobic Respiration

Neither Aerobic and Anaerobic Respiration

Both Aerobic and Anaerobic Respiration

Process which releases carbon dioxide and ethyl alcohol.

Aerobic Respiration

Anaerobic Respiration

Neither Aerobic and Anaerobic Respiration

Both Aerobic and Anaerobic Respiration

Process which uses carbon dioxide as a raw material.

Aerobic Respiration

Anaerobic Respiration

Neither Aerobic and Anaerobic Respiration

Both Aerobic and Anaerobic Respiration

Why are enzymes necessary in living organisms?

Enzymes increase the rate of chemical reactions which would otherwise occur too slowly to sustain life

Enzymes raise the activation energy required for a reaction to proceed.

Enzymes are the source of energy for most reactions.

Which of the following affects the rate of a chemical reaction?

Concentration

Presence of a catalyst

Heat

All of these

Made of four nitrogenous bases

Small, circular DNA floating in the cytoplasm

Contained in a nucleus

Double helix structure of repeating nucleotides

Long, circular DNA with several thousand genes

Linear, very long pieces of DNA with many thousands of genes

When DNA replicates, each original strand of DNA serves as a template for a new strand. What type of replication is this?

Anti-parallel replication

Semi-conservative replication

Double helical replication

Base-paired replication

Transcription begins when RNA polymerase binds to which area on the DNA strand?

Okazaki Fragment

Poly(A) tail

5' cap

Promoter

Many enzymes used in biotechnology applications occur naturally within the cell. Which of the following enzymes are involved in DNA replication?

DNA Polymerase

Restriction Endonuclease

Luciferase

Aminotransferase

Where does translation take place in prokaryotes?

In the nucleus

At the ribosomes

At the lysosomes

At the vacuoles

If a bacterial cell did not contain restriction enzymes, which of the following would be likely to occur?

The cell would create incomplete plasmids.

The cell would not be able to replicate DNA.

The cell would be easily infected and lysed by bacteriophages.

Cell theory states:

All life forms are made from one or more cells.

Cells only arise from pre-existing cells.

The cell is the smallest form of life.

All of these

Which process occurs at structure W?

Packaging of molecules

Aerobic respiration

Protein Synthesis

DNA replication

Which type of cell could use sugar to produce energy in an oxygen-deprived environment?

Bacterial

Animal (muscle)

Yeast

All of these

After mitotic division, how many chromosomes do daughter cells have compared with the parent cell?

Half as many

Twice as many

The same number

None of these

Which of the following is an accurate description of Gram positive bacteria after Gram staining?

Pink, because gram positive bacteria have a thin layer of peptidoglycan in the cell wall.

Pink, because gram positive bacteria have a thick layer of peptidoglycan in the cell wall.

Purple, because gram positive bacteria have a thin layer of peptidoglycan in the cell wall.

Purple, because gram positive bacteria have a thick layer of peptidoglycan in the cell wall.

A technician performing an ELISA uses a primary antibody with a mouse IgG2a isotype to analyze patient blood samples. Which of the following secondary antibodies would be the most appropriate to use in the assay?

Mouse anti-human

Rabbit anti-mouse

Mouse anti-rabbit

Human anti-rabbit

Which of the following best defines the term "epitope"?

The part of an antigen that is recognized by the immune system

The quantity of circulating antibody in the blood

The response to a specific foreign substance

The component of blood that contains the antibodies

A couple seeks the help of a genetic counselor to help them understand their chances of having a child with cystic fibrosis (CF). The husband’s father had CF, so they are worried he is a carrier of the mutant CF gene. The results of their genetic screening shows that both the husband and the wife are carriers of mutant CF gene. Both are “Cc”, where “C” represents the normal (dominant) gene, and “c” represents the mutant (recessive) gene. What is the percent likelihood each of their children would have CF?

No chance

25% chance of having the disorder

50% chance of having the disorder

100% chance of having the disorder

Genomics involves the study of all of the following EXCEPT:

Mapping the location of genes in the genome

Comparing genomes between different organisms

Studying gene expression under varying conditions or in different cell types

Studying how DNA is replicated within the cell cycle

Identifying the function of the genes in the genome

Human males inherit an X chromosome and mitochondrial DNA from their mothers.

True

False

Referring to the image above, what is the volume in mL in the graduated cylinder? Record the answer to one decimal place below.

Which of the following instruments should be used to pipet 175 microliters?

P20

P100

P200

P1000

Shaking is not necessary to oxygenate an aerobic liquid culture for optimal growth.

True

False

Which of the following methods is used to obtain single, isolated bacterial colonies?

Streak plate method

Optical density method

Aerosol method

Gram stain method

You have just completed streaking out some E. coli on an LB agar plates. Which of the following is the best next step?

Confirm incubator temperature is correct, then place plates, right-side up, inside.

Place plates, right-side up, inside the incubator, then confirm the temperature is correct.

Confirm incubator temperature is correct, then place plates, upside-down, inside.

Place plates, upside-down, inside the incubator, then confirm the temperature is correct.

A technician is asked to determine the size of a PCR product. She runs the PCR product on an agarose gel, but notices the band for the PCR product is well above (i.e., closer to the wells) than any bands on the DNA ladder. Which of the following steps can the technician take to ensure she can determine the size of the PCR product the next time the samples are run?

Run the gel at a lower voltage

Run the gel at a higher voltage

Use a DNA ladder with larger DNA fragments

Use a DNA ladder with smaller DNA fragments

Assume the DNA fragments in lane 3 below are from one plasmid digested with the restriction enzyme EcoRI. What is the approximate size in bp of the plasmid?

2500

5000

7500

9500

Assume the DNA in lane 3 in the image below was loaded on the gel after it was digested with the restriction enzyme EcoRI. If the DNA was originally a plasmid, and the restriction enzyme digest was complete, how many EcoRI sites are in the plasmid?

0

1

2

3

4

Which of the following is the correct method to make 375mL of a 24% (w/v) CaCl₂ solution?

Dissolve the CaCl₂ in a small volume of dH₂O, then adjust the volume to 375 mL

Dissolve the CaCl₂ in 400 mL dH₂O, then remove 25 mL

Dissolve the CaCl₂ in 375 mL of dH₂O

A technician is performing an assay with a 30 minute incubation step. If the technician begins the incubation at 14:42, at what time will the incubation step end?

15:12

15:22

14:52

13:12

A technician is testing the purity of a DNA sample using a spectrophotometer. He gets a 260 nm reading of 0.51 au, and a 280 nm reading of 0.65 au. Recalling that the preferred range for the value is 1.8-2.0, is the purity of the sample acceptable?

Yes

No

No right answer based on information given.

What event occurred in the 1950’s that contributed to the growth of biotechnology?

First genetically engineered organisms

Methods developed to produce recombinant DNA

Structure of DNA described, as well as its method of replication

Explosion in biotech companies, products and employment

The advent of recombinant DNA technology began with which of the following events?

Isolation of bacteriophages

Human Genome Project

Isolation of restriction enzymes

Solving the structure of DNA

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding vaccines?

They are typically made of a weakened or a killed form of a disease-causing microorganism.

They signal the immune system to make antigens against the microorganism for which the vaccine was developed.

They signal the immune system to make antibodies against the microorganism for which the vaccine was developed.

They can provide protection against future infection by the pathogen for which they were developed.

Which of the following is an product of agricultural biotechnology?

Transgenic crops

Recombinant insulin

Vaccines

Restriction Enzymes

Biopharmaceuticals differ from chemical drugs in that they:

Are produced by a living system,

Cannot be terminally sterilized using heat,

Are more sensitive to how they are handled in the manufacturing process,

All of these

Which of the following represents a potential benefit of genetically engineered animals?

Enhanced animal welfare and health to increase resistance to disease, minimizing the need for animal care interventions,

Production of valuable industrial products, such as spider silk used for medical and defense purposes,

Efficient production of replacement proteins, drugs, vaccines or tissues for treating and preventing human diseases,

All of these

Which of the following represents a benefit of genetic engineering to humans?

Producing foods with low nutritional value

Reducing the biodiversity of organisms

Decreasing the yield of crops

Developing medications

Which of the following pieces of legislation prohibits bias that is based on information derived from DNA testing?

Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act

Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act

Pure Food and Drugs Act

21st Century Cures Act

Biotechnology can be used to provide alternative, cleaner technologies to help reduce or remove hazardous environmental contaminants. Examples include:

• A lignin degrading enzyme used in place of bleach in paper mills
• Microbes used in place of oil based raw materials to polymerize plastics
• Using microorganisms to remove environmental pollutants

What might be some limitations preventing the widespread use of these new technologies?

Microbial activity may change with seasonal changes in temperature,

Degraded waste byproducts may still be a major problem,

New technologies might be more costly and take more time

Concerns regarding long-term outcomes from using genetically modified organisms

All of these

If you have a research-based biotechnology job, you are most likely involved in:

Information systems, such as computer support

Regulatory affairs and quality assurance

Discovering new products and the process for their development

Legal arguments over ownership of a procedure

Oversees and ensures that all products meet standards of quality prior to being released for sale

Quality Assurance (QA)

Quality Control (QC)

Manufacturing

Research and Development

Works to identify new or improved products or processes

Quality Assurance (QA)

Quality Control (QC)

Manufacturing

Research and Development

Participates in the production of commercial quantities of a product

Quality Assurance (QA)

Quality Control (QC)

Manufacturing

Research and Development

Conducts testing on raw materials, in-process samples, and finished productsc:

Quality Assurance (QA)

Quality Control (QC)

Manufacturing

Research and Development

Identifying a product

Step 1

Step 2

Step 3

Step 4

Step 5

Research and development

Step 1

Step 2

Step 3

Step 4

Step 5

Clinical trials

Step 1

Step 2

Step 3

Step 4

Step 5

Manufacturing

Step 1

Step 2

Step 3

Step 4

Step 5

Sales and Marketing

Step 1

Step 2

Step 3

Step 4

Step 5

Research and development

Step 1

Step 2

Step 3

Step 4

Step 5

Process development

Step 1

Step 2

Step 3

Step 4

Step 5

Small-scale manufacturing

Step 1

Step 2

Step 3

Step 4

Step 5

Testing for safety and efficacy

Step 1

Step 2

Step 3

Step 4

Step 5

Large-scale manufacturing

Step 1

Step 2

Step 3

Step 4

Step 5

The FDA regulations governing the manufacture of drugs, devices, and biologics are designed to:

Ensure that medical products are safe

Ensure that medical products are what they claim to be

Ensure that medical products are effective

All of these

Which of the following is a critical function of Quality Assurance (QA) personnel?

Maintain and control documentation for regulatory compliance

Clinical research

Manufacture of product

Perform environmental monitoring

Which of the following describes the process of providing documented evidence that a method does what it is intended to do?

Planned Deviation

Calibration

Assay Validation

Design Qualification

Which of the following represents the process in which a health care provider educates a patient about the risks, benefits, and alternatives of a given procedure or intervention?

Informed Consent

Express Consent

Implied Consent

Unanimous Consent

cGMP is an abbreviation used in the pharmaceutical and biopharmaceutical industry, and stands for:

Current Good Money Practices

Company Good Manufacturing Practices

Company Guideline Manufacturing Practices

Current Good Manufacturing Practices

A technician notes the date incorrectly while completing a Batch Record. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?

Cover the error with correction fluid/tape, and write the correct information over it.

Cross out the entry with a single line, and initial and date it.

Black out the information entirely with a marker.

Destroy the document and get a new one.

Good Documentation Practices require a company to have a traceable, written record of all processes and checks.

True

False

Lab workers may take their lab notebooks home to fill them out.

True

False

Measures hydrogen ion activity in water-based solutions

pH Meter

Water bath

Plate Reader

Microscope

A device for regulating the temperature of anything subjected to heat

pH Meter

Water bath

Plate Reader

Microscope

Instrument that produces enlarged images of small objects

pH Meter

Water bath

Plate Reader

Microscope

Used to quantify biological or chemical events within a microtiter plate

pH Meter

Water bath

Plate Reader

Microscope

Used to measure the absorption of light by a substance in order to quantify it

Water bath

Spectrophotometer

Plate Reader

Microscope

Connects to an electrophoresis tank to create an electric field between the electrodes

pH Meter

Power Supply

Plate Reader

Microscope

Enclosed, ventilated workspace designed to limit exposure to hazardous or toxic fumes, vapors, or dust

pH Meter

Water bath

Plate Reader

Fume Hood

Measures and delivers volumes under 1.0 mL

pH Meter

Water bath

Micropipet

Microscope

Look at picture

Where should the final microcentrifuge tube be placed in the rotor below to balance the centrifuge?

When transferring bacteria using aseptic technique, it is common practice to place the sterile loop into the culture tube by moving the tube over the loop, rather than moving the loop into the tube.

True

False

Which of the following should NOT be used to disinfect an area that is potentially contaminated by DNA?

Bleach

Alcohol

UV Light

Uses a laser light to scan samples that have been dyed

Confocal Microscope

Bright Field Microscope

Inverted Microscope

Electron Microscope

Light source is located above the specimen

Confocal Microscope

Bright Field Microscope

Inverted Microscope

Electron Microscope

Objectives are located above the stage

Confocal Microscope

Bright Field Microscope

Inverted Microscope

Electron Microscope

Uses electrons to scan samples in near-vacuum conditions

Confocal Microscope

Bright Field Microscope

Inverted Microscope

Electron Microscope

Why are enzyme solutions always prepared using a buffered solvent at a specific pH?

A buffered solvent is resistant to changes in pH because it is made with 50% sugar. Enzymes are best able to maintain their pH in a high sugar environment.

A buffered solvent easily changes in pH because it is made with a combination of a weak acid and its conjugate base. Enzymes perform best in solutions that can vary in pH.

A buffered solvent is resistant to fluctuations in pH, because it is made with a combination of a weak acid and its conjugate base. Enzymes best retain their function within a narrow pH range.

Below is a DNA sequence that you are trying to amplify from a genomic DNA sample. Evaluate the appropriateness of using the potential primer (below the DNA strand) to amplify the specific sequence of DNA.

DNA Sequence of interest: 3’-ACATGCTGCTGCTGGTCACAAGTCAATTCCTAA-5’

Potential primer to the sequence: 5’-TGTACGACGACGAC-3’

This is not a good primer because it is not anti-parallel to the sequence.

This is not a good primer because it has too many G’s and C’s.

This is a good primer because it is anti-parallel and doesn't add long repeats to the sequence.

This is a good primer because it has the sequence “GACC” in the middle.

Which enzyme is used to join together DNA fragments?

Phosphatase

Ligase

Restriction endonuclease|

Amylase

Plasmid DNA is purified using anion exchange column chromatography because DNA is positively charged.

True

False

Which of the following would increase the likelihood for good separation of adjacent bands on an agarose gel?

Use a lower percentage of agarose when making the gel (0.5%)

Use a higher percentage of agarose in the gel (1.5% to 2.0%)

Increase the voltage setting, and decrease running time

Increase the voltage setting and increase running time

Which of the following statements best illustrates the reason for separation of DNA during gel electrophoresis?

DNA fragments are separated in the gel matrix based on their mRNA transcript

DNA fragments are separated in the gel matrix based on their size

DNA fragments are separated in the gel matrix based on their charge

DNA fragments are separated in the gel matrix based on their nucleic acid sequence

Which suspect is incriminated by the results of the DNA analysis below?

Suspect 1

Suspect 2

Suspect 3

Suspect 4

Which Suspect sample has the smallest piece of DNA?

Suspect 1

Suspect 2

Suspect 3

Suspect 4

Which of the following should be included in a gel electrophoresis to determine the sizes of the DNA fragments on the gel?

Loading dye

Amino Acid sequences

Molecular Weight Markers

DNA Polymerase

Gels are used to separate pieces of RNA, DNA, and protein. What type of gel is typically used for protein electrophoresis?

Polyacrylamide

Agarose

Agarosamide

Agar

Referring to the gel above, what is the approximate size of band B?

Approximately 140 base pairs

Approximately 1,400 base pairs

Approximately 14,000 base pairs

None of these

A plasmid has three restriction sites for EcoRI. If the plasmid is treated with EcoR1, how many fragments will be obtained?

2

3

4

5

Two DNA samples with different sequences are cut with the same restriction enzyme. When they are run on an agarose gel, the resulting bands will match.

True

False

Which of the following can be used as vehicles for delivering new DNA to a cell?

Lipid

Plasmid

Virus

All of these

Which of the following describes genetic engineering?

The alteration of an organism’s genetic, or hereditary, material in a laboratory

The alteration of an organism’s genetic, or hereditary, material in nature

Allowed in the U.S.

A precursor step in producing recombinant proteins for therapeutic use

All of these

Which of the following is a common technique used to transform bacteria?

Electroporation

Electrophoresis

Electroblotting

Electroencephalography

When developing a new PCR procedure, every variable needs to be tested to determine the optimum conditions for that specific reaction. Which of the statements below describes the best experimental design for optimizing the primer-annealing temperature?

Multiple reactions run with Primer, DNA, dNPT’s, and Buffer concentration kept constant, changing only the annealing temperature in a range of 75°C to 95°C.

Multiple reactions run with Primer, DNA, dNPT’s, and Buffer concentration kept constant, changing only the annealing temperature in a range of 50°C to 70°C.

Multiple reactions run with Primer, DNA, dNPT’s, and Buffer concentration varied, changing the annealing temperature in a range of 50° C to 70°C.

Multiple reactions run with Primer, DNA, dNPT’s, and Buffer concentration varied, changing the annealing temperature in a range of 75°C to 95°C.

Which of the following enzymes are used to amplify DNA in a Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)?

Phosphatase

Restriction endonuclease

Ligase

DNA polymerase

Refering to the scenario above, which of the tubes in the picture below most likely contains the 0.0 mg/mL BSA standard?

A

B

C

D

E

F

Refering to the scenario above, which of the tubes in the picture below most likely contains the 10.0 mg/mL BSA standard?

A

B

C

D

E

F

Monoclonal antibodies for scientific research can be produced in human cells.

True

False

Why is a blocking step typically included in a western blot?

To prevent non-specific binding of the antibody used for detection

To transfer proteins from the gel to the membrane

To detect the secondary antibody

To cleave the substrate for visualization of the bands

Running DNA gels:

Vertical gel electrophoresis box

Horizontal gel electrophoresis box

Heat-stable DNA polymerase

Spectrophotometer

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR):

Vertical gel electrophoresis box

Horizontal gel electrophoresis box

Heat-stable DNA polymerase

Spectrophotometer

Measuring DNA or protein concentration:

Vertical gel electrophoresis box

Horizontal gel electrophoresis box

Heat-stable DNA polymerase

Spectrophotometer

Running protein gels (PAGE):

Vertical gel electrophoresis box

Horizontal gel electrophoresis box

Heat-stable DNA polymerase

Spectrophotometer

Joining pieces of DNA:

Vertical gel electrophoresis box

Horizontal gel electrophoresis box

Heat-stable DNA polymerase

Spectrophotometer

DNA Ligase

Digesting DNA:

Vertical gel electrophoresis box

Horizontal gel electrophoresis box

Heat-stable DNA polymerase

Spectrophotometer

DNA Ligase

Restriction Enzymes

Determining the size and purity of a specific protein:

Spectrophotometer

SDS PAGE

ELISA

Stability

Enzyme Activity

Determining the presence of a specific protein:

Spectrophotometer

SDS PAGE

ELISA

Stability

Enzyme Activity

Determining the time period protein remains active:

Spectrophotometer

SDS PAGE

ELISA

Stability

Enzyme Activity

Determining the protein's activity:

Spectrophotometer

SDS PAGE

ELISA

Stability

Enzyme Activity

Determining the amount of a protein present

Spectrophotometer

SDS PAGE

ELISA

Stability

Enzyme Activity

In which of the following applications (diagnostic testing) are monoclonal antibodies NOT used?

Paternity testing

Tissue typing before transplantation

Detection of infectious agents

Pregnancy testing

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a human monoclonal antibody over a polyclonal antibody made in a mouse?

Human monoclonal antibodies are produced using hybridomas, so they can be grown indefinitely in cell culture.

Human monoclonal antibodies bind to many different antigens, allowing for broad-based drug delivery system.

A human monoclonal antibody recognizes only one specific antigenic epitope, making them more accurate for diagnostic testing.

A human monoclonal antibody recognizes many antigenic epitopes, making them more accurate for diagnostic testing.

573,900 written in scientific notation is:

5.739 x 10^-5

5.739 x 10⁵

5.74 x 10^-5

5.74 x 10⁵

What is 0.9851 rounded to three significant figures?

0.100

0.986

0.985

0.990

What is 37.6 x 1.037, rounded to the correct number of significant digits?

38.9

38.99

39.0

39.99