Final Flashcards


Set Details Share
created 1 year ago by Dcadet2025
28 views
Subjects:
pathophysiology
show moreless
Page to share:
Embed this setcancel
COPY
code changes based on your size selection
Size:
X
Show:

1

Rheumatoid arthritis involves joint inflammation caused by

autoimmune injury.

2

Calcitonin is produced by thyroid parafollicular cells and increases bone formation by

osteoblasts.

3

A patient is diagnosed with heart failure with normal ejection fraction. This patient is most likely characterized by a(n)

elderly woman without a previous history of MI.

4

In addition to E. coli, a risk factor for development of pyelonephritis is

urinary retention and reflux.

5

A serious complication of deep vein thrombosis is

pulmonary embolus.

6

Hypotension, distended neck veins, and muffled heart sounds are classic manifestations of

cardiac tamponade.

7

When preparing for the admission of a client diagnosed with bronchiectasis, the nurse will

put a sputum cup and a box of tissues on the bedside table.

8

Aortic regurgitation is associated with

diastolic murmur.

9

In individuals who have asthma, exposure to an allergen to which they are sensitized leads to which pathophysiologic event?

Inflammation, mucosal edema, and bronchoconstriction

10

In which stage of shock is a patient who has lost 1200 mL of blood, who has normal blood pressure when supine, but who experiences orthostatic hypotension upon standing?

Class II, Compensated Stage

11

Clinical manifestations of moderate to severe hypokalemia include

muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias.

12

The physiologic mechanisms involved in the pain phenomenon are termed

nociception.

13

________ is the most powerful predictor of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus.

Obesity

14

When a parent of a toddler recently diagnosed with pneumococcal pneumonia asks why their child is so much sicker than a classmate was when they were diagnosed with pneumonia, the nurse replies

“It sounds like your child has a case of bacterial pneumonia, while the classmate had viral pneumonia.”

15

A person with acute hypoxemia may hyperventilate and develop

respiratory alkalosis.

16

Respiratory acidosis may be caused by

hypoventilation.

17

Liver transaminase elevations in which aspartate aminotransferase (AST) is markedly greater than alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is characteristic of

alcohol-induced injury.

18

Individuals with end-stage chronic renal disease are at risk for renal osteodystrophy and spontaneous bone fractures, because

they are deficient in active vitamin D.

19

Most muscle strains are caused by

abnormal muscle contraction.

20

The most common cause of intrinsic kidney injury is _____ injury.

tubular

21

A patient presenting with a severe, pounding headache accompanied by nausea and photophobia is likely experiencing a ________ headache.

migraine

22

Hyperaldosteronism causes

ECV excess and hypokalemia.

23

The primary source of erythropoietin is provided by the

kidney

24

When a patient experiencing nephrotic syndrome asks, “What causes my urine to be so full of protein,” the nurse’s response is based on the knowledge that

the glomerular membrane has increased permeability.

25

Assessment of an extremity six hours after surgical alignment and casting demonstrates pulselessness and pallor. The priority action to take is to

initiate action to have the cast split or removed.

26

Chronic bronchitis often leads to cor pulmonale because of

increased pulmonary vascular resistance.

27

Although skin manifestations may occur in numerous locations, the classic presentation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) includes

a butterfly pattern rash on the face across the bridge of the nose.

28

The gate control theory of pain transmission predicts that activity in touch receptors will

decrease pain signal transmission in the spinal cord.

29

The process responsible for distribution of fluid between the interstitial and intracellular compartments is

osmosis

30

Obstructive disorders are associated with

low expiratory flow rates.

31

At his most recent clinic visit, a patient with end-stage renal disease is noted to have edema, congestive signs in the pulmonary system, and a pericardial friction rub. Appropriate therapy at this time would include

initiation of dialysis.

32

Legionnaires disease is characterized by

presence of systemic illness.

33

Pain that waxes and wanes and is exacerbated by physical exertion is likely related to

fibromyalgia syndrome.

34

In contrast to osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis may be associated with

systemic aching in the musculoskeletal system.

35

A unique characteristic feature of fibromyalgia is the presence of

tender point pain.

36

A major modifiable risk factor for nephrolithiasis is

dehydration

37

The patient most at risk for postrenal acute kidney injury is a(n)

elderly patient with hypertrophy of the prostate.

38

The arterial blood gas pH = 7.52, PaCO2 = 30 mm Hg, HCO3 = 24 mEq/L demonstrates

respiratory alkalosis.

39

Lusitropic impairment refers to

impaired diastolic relaxation.

40

The most reliable indicator that a person is experiencing an acute myocardial infarction (MI) is

ST-segment elevation.

41

High blood pressure increases the workload of the left ventricle, because it increases

afterload

42

Emphysema results from destruction of alveolar walls and capillaries, which is because of

release of proteolytic enzymes from immune cells.

43

Individuals who have chronic bronchitis most often have

a productive cough.

44

Risk factors for atherosclerosis include

hyperlipidemia

45

While hospitalized, an elderly patient with a history of myocardial infarction was noted to have high levels of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs). What is the significance of this finding?

Increased LDL levels are associated with increased risk of coronary artery disease.

46

Myxedema coma is a severe condition associated with

hypothyroidism

47

A potential risk factor for breast cancer includes

early menarche and late first pregnancy.

48

Anticholinesterase inhibitors may be used to manage

myasthenia gravis.

49

Ulcerative colitis is commonly associated with

bloody diarrhea.

50

What laboratory data would support a diagnosis of hemochromatosis?

Elevated ferritin

51

A 17-year-old college-bound student receives a vaccine against an organism that causes meningitis. This is an example of

primary prevention.

52

Chronic pancreatitis may lead to

diabetes mellitus.

53

Narcotic administration should be administered carefully in patients with acute pancreatitis related to potential for

sphincter of Oddi dysfunction.

54

The American Diabetes Association recommends a postprandial blood glucose level of ________ mg/dL for adults with diabetes.

less than 180

55

The most common causes of prehepatic jaundice are ________ and ineffective erythropoiesis.

hemolysis

56

A laboratory test result that helps confirm the diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is

positive antinuclear antibodies.

57

Rheumatic heart disease is most often a consequence of

β-hemolytic streptococcal infection.

58

Which response to an injection of ACTH indicates a primary adrenal insufficiency?

No change in serum glucocorticoid level

59

Lack of α-antitrypsin in emphysema causes

destruction of alveolar tissue.

60

The prothrombin time (PT) and INR (international normalized ratio) measure the integrity of

extrinsic pathway.

61

The classic manifestations of Parkinson disease include

rest tremor and skeletal muscle rigidity.

62

Administration of which therapy is most appropriate for hypovolemic shock?

Crystalloids

63

The most common cause of ischemic acute tubular necrosis (ATN) in the United States is

sepsis

64

The most frequent initial symptom of bladder cancer is

hematuria

65

A patient has a positive Chvostek sign. The nurse interprets this as a sign of

increased neuromuscular excitability.

66

Hypertension is closely linked to

obstructive sleep apnea.

67

Activation of parasympathetic nerves to the bladder will cause

bladder contraction.

68

Which acid are the kidneys unable to excrete?

Carbonic

69

Modulation of pain signals is thought to be mediated by the release of

endorphins

70

Hepatic encephalopathy is associated with

increased blood ammonia levels.

71

Hypotension associated with neurogenic and anaphylactic shock is because of

peripheral pooling of blood.

72

Diarrhea and other lower intestinal fluid losses will contribute to

metabolic acidosis.

73

A laboratory test that should be routinely monitored in patients receiving digitalis therapy is

serum potassium.

74

The strength of the bond between oxygen and hemoglobin is known as the

oxygen-hemoglobin affinity.

75

The pathophysiology of rheumatoid arthritis involves

immune cells accumulating in pannus and destroying articular cartilage.

76

In general, with aging, organ size and function

decrease.

77

Endometriosis is a condition in which

ectopic endometrial tissue is present.

78

Which is indicative of a left tension pneumothorax?

Absent breath sounds on the left

79

Which is not considered to be a risk factor for thrombus formation?

Thrombocytopenia

80

A college student living in a dormitory reports a stiff neck and headache and is found to have a fever of 102°F. This information is most consistent with

meningitis

81

Risk factors for hemorrhagic stroke include

acute hypertension.

82

A malignant bone-forming tumor is referred to as a(n)

osteosarcoma.

83

Gouty arthritis is a complication of

inadequate renal excretion of uric acid.

84

_________ is a form of spina bifida in which a saclike cyst filled with CSF protrudes through the spinal defect but does not involve the spinal cord.

Meningocele

85

A patient with flail chest will demonstrate

outward chest movement on expiration.

86

The urinalysis finding most indicative of cystitis includes the presence of

nitrites

87

Rupture of esophageal varices is a complication of cirrhosis with portal hypertension and carries a high ________ rate.

mortality

88

The ________ system compensates for metabolic acidosis and alkalosis.

respiratory

89

What is the correct definition of complete remission (CR) of leukemia?

CR is less than 5% blasts in marrow and normal CBC values.

90

Intracranial pressure normally ranges from ______ mm Hg.

0 to 15

91

The most commonly ordered diagnostic test for evaluation of the urinary system is

ultrasonography

92

Which condition is caused by a genetic defect?

Polycystic kidney disease

93

Patients with immunodeficiency disorders are usually first identified because they

develop recurrent infections.

94

The hypermetabolic state leading to cachexia in terminal cancer is thought to be because of

tumor necrosis factor.

95

Seizures that involve both hemispheres at the outset are termed

generalized

96

Patients with immunodeficiency disorders are usually first identified because they

develop recurrent infections.

97

A laboratory test result that helps confirm the diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is

positive antinuclear antibodies.

98

Venous obstruction leads to edema because it ________ pressure.

increases capillary hydrostatic

99

The condition characterized by oliguria and hematuria is

acute glomerulonephritis.

100

Velocity of blood flow is measured in

centimeters per second.

101

The most common source of osteomyelitis is

an infection that migrates via the bloodstream.

102

A level of ____ on the Glasgow Coma Scale indicates likely fatal damage.

3

103

Metaplasia is

the replacement of one differentiated cell type with another.

104

What type of seizure usually occurs in children and is characterized by brief staring spells?

Absence

105

Mitral stenosis is associated with

a pressure gradient across the mitral valve.

106

Retroviruses are associated with human cancers, including

Burkitt lymphoma.

107

Myxedema coma is a severe condition associated with

hypothyroidism

108

A 17-year-old college-bound student receives a vaccine against an organism that causes meningitis. This is an example of

primary prevention.

109

________ is the most powerful predictor of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus.

Obesity

110

The megakaryocyte is a precursor to

platelets.

111

In which stage of shock is a patient who has lost 1200 mL of blood, who has normal blood pressure when supine, but who experiences orthostatic hypotension upon standing?

Class II, Compensated Stage

112

Cor pulmonale refers to

right ventricular hypertrophy secondary to pulmonary hypertension.

113

The defining characteristic of severe acute kidney injury is

oliguria

114

The pain of nonarticular rheumatism (“growing pain”) is worse

during the night.

115

The most common cause of mechanical bowel obstruction is

adhesions

116

Which electrolyte imbalances cause increased neuromuscular excitability?

Hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia

117

Emesis causes

metabolic alkalosis.

118

A patient with renal disease is at risk for developing uremia as the nephrons progressively deteriorate, because

GFR declines.

119

A patient who has difficulty walking without assistance is incontinent of urine when help doesn’t get to her quickly enough. The term for this type of incontinence is

functional

120

Hepatitis with the presence of autoantibodies and positive antinuclear antibodies (ANA) is

autoimmune hepatitis.

121

Reperfusion injury to cells

involves formation of free radicals.

122

A primary effector cell of the type I hypersensitivity response is

mast cells.

123

An obese but otherwise healthy teen is given a prescription for a low-calorie diet and exercise program. This is an example of

secondary prevention.

124

An increased urine bilirubin is associated with

hepatitis

125

The pain that accompanies kidney disorders is called

nephralgia.

126

Many of the responses to stress are attributed to activation of the sympathetic nervous system and are mediated by

norepinephrine.

127

Which is not a manifestation of acute arterial obstruction?

Purpura

128

An erroneously low blood pressure measurement may be caused by

positioning the arm above the heart level.

129

A cause of thrombocytopenia includes

chemotherapy.

130

Systemic disorders include

rheumatoid arthritis.

131

The common denominator in all forms of heart failure is

reduced cardiac output.

132

Celiac sprue is a malabsorptive disorder associated with

inflammatory reaction to gluten-containing foods.

133

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors block the

conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.

134

A diagnostic laboratory finding in myeloma is

Bence Jones proteins in the urine.

135

Proto-oncogenes

are normal cellular genes that promote growth.

136

When systemic vascular resistance is decreased, blood flow

decreases.

137

What results when systemic blood pressure is increased?

Vasoconstriction

138

A patient diagnosed with chronic compensated heart failure reports that, “My feet swell if I eat salt but I don’t understand why” The nurse’s best response is

“Salt holds water in your blood and makes more pressure against your blood vessels, so fluid leaks out into your tissues and makes them swell.”

139

First-degree heart block is characterized by

prolonged PR interval.

140

Which neurologic disorder is commonly referred to as Lou Gehrig disease?

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

141

The main clinical manifestation of a kidney stone obstructing the ureter is

renal colic.

142

It is true that gallstones are

more common in women.

143

Individuals who have chronic bronchitis most often have

a productive cough.

144

A patient with high blood pressure who is otherwise healthy is counseled to restrict sodium intake. This is an example of

secondary prevention.

145

All the following stress-induced hormones increase blood glucose except

aldosterone.

146

The displacement of two bones in which the articular surfaces partially lose contact with each other is called

subluxation.

147

The person at highest risk for developing hypernatremia is a person who

receives tube feedings because he or she is comatose after a stroke.

148

Paget’s disease is characterized by

excessive bone resorption followed by excessive formation of fragile bone.

149

Dopamine precursors and anticholinergics are all used in the management of Parkinson disease, because they

increase dopamine activity in the basal ganglia.

150

Which change in a patient’s assessment has the greatest urgency?

Serum potassium concentration is increasing; has developed cardiac dysrhythmias, but denies any difficulty breathing

151

A patient presenting with a severe, pounding headache accompanied by nausea and photophobia is likely experiencing a ________ headache.

migraine

152

Postrenal acute kidney injury may be caused by

bilateral kidney stones.

153

A person who has hyperparathyroidism is likely to develop

hypercalcemia

154

The effect of stress on the immune system

may involve enhancement or impairment the immune system.

155

A patient being treated for acute tubular necrosis (ATN) develops mild polyuria. The nurse responds to questions about why this occurring by stating

“His renal tubules are recovering, so he is making more urine, but he is not able to concentrate urine well, because he is not fully recovered.”

156

A patient diagnosed with diabetes, smokes a pack of cigarettes daily and eats very few green leafy vegetables. After experiencing a fractured toe, this patient is at risk for

delayed healing.

157

An example of inappropriate treatment for head trauma would be

hypoventilation

158

Pain with passive stretching of a muscle is indicative of

noncontractile tissue injury.

159

What finding should prompt further diagnostic testing in a child presenting with diarrhea?

Blood and mucus in the stools

160

Prerenal acute kidney injury may be caused by

severe hypotension.

161

A patient, age 3, has vesicoureteral reflux. “Why does that make him have so many bladder infections?” asks his mother. The nurse’s best response is

“When he urinates, urine runs back toward his kidneys and then into the bladder again, making it easy for bacteria to grow if they reach the bladder.”

162

The relationship of blood flow (Q), resistance (R), and pressure (P) in a vessel can be expressed by which equation?

Q = P/R

163

Viral pneumonia is characterized by

a dry cough.

164

Most gallstones are composed of

cholesterol.

165

An increase in organ size and function caused by increased workload is termed

hypertrophy.

166

Tumor necrosis factor α and interleukin-1 contribute to shock states because they induce production of

nitric oxide.

167

A loud pansystolic murmur that radiates to the axilla is most likely a result of

mitral regurgitation.

168

Which complication of asthma is life threatening?

Status asthmaticus

169

It is true that growth hormone excess in adults

results in the condition of acromegaly.

170

Barrett esophagus is a

preneoplastic lesion.

171

Which disorder usually causes skeletal pain and involves significant bone demineralization from vitamin D deficiency?

Osteomalacia

172

The formation of active vitamin D

is impaired in renal failure.

173

The cause of the most common form of anemia is

iron deficiency.

174

Effects of hypernatremia on the central nervous system typically include

confusion.

175

Diabetes insipidus is a condition that

results from inadequate ADH secretion.

176

Which dysrhythmia is thought to be associated with reentrant mechanisms?

Preexcitation syndrome tachycardia (Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome)

177

Critically ill patients may have parenterally administered vasoactive drugs that are adjusted according to their _____ pressure.

mean arterial

178

Leakage of CSF from the nose or ears is commonly associated with

<strong>basilar skull fracture.</strong><strong>&nbsp;</strong>

179

The most commonly ordered diagnostic test for evaluation of the urinary system is

ultrasonography.

180

Uterine prolapse is caused by a relaxation of the

cardinal ligaments.

181

The most appropriate treatment for secondary polycythemia is

measured to improve oxygenation.

182

An example of an acyanotic heart defect is

ventricular septal defect.

183

Clinical manifestations of extracellular fluid volume deficit include

weak pulse, low blood pressure, and increased heart rate.

184

A patient presenting with muscle cramps, fatigue, anxiety, depression, and prolonged Q-T intervals on EKG may be showing symptoms of

hypoparathyroidism.

185

“Please explain the pathophysiology of osteoarthritis to me,” says another nurse. “Is it just wear and tear so that the cartilage wears out?” Your best response is

“No; cells in bone, cartilage, and the synovial membrane all get activated and secrete inflammatory mediators that destroy cartilage and damage bone.”

186

The microorganism that causes the vast majority of urinary tract infections is

Escherichia coli.

187

It is true that Bell palsy is a

paralysis of the muscles innervated by the facial nerve.

188

Accumulation of fluid in the pleural space is called

pleural effusion.

189

The stage during which the patient functions normally, although the disease processes are well established, is referred to as

subclinical.

190

The signs and symptoms of adrenocortical hormone excess may occur from either a primary or secondary disorder. A symptom associated with primary Cushing syndrome is

hyperglycemia

191

Low cardiac output in association with high preload is characteristic of ________ shock.

cardiogenic

192

A common characteristic of viral pneumonia is

dry cough.

193

A patient has ureteral colic. The manifestation that requires immediate notification of the physician is

chills and fever.

194

Treatment of a uterine prolapse may involve the insertion of a(n) ________ to hold the uterus in place.

pessary.

195

A patient diagnosed with chronic compensated heart failure reports that, “My feet swell if I eat salt but I don’t understand why” The nurse’s best response is

“Salt holds water in your blood and makes more pressure against your blood vessels, so fluid leaks out into your tissues and makes them swell.”

196

Individuals with end-stage chronic renal disease are at risk for renal osteodystrophy and spontaneous bone fractures, because

they are deficient in active vitamin D.

197

Systemic disorders include

rheumatoid arthritis.

198

Tachycardia is an early sign of low cardiac output that occurs because of

baroreceptor activity.

199

A patient who has difficulty walking without assistance is incontinent of urine when help doesn’t get to her quickly enough. The term for this type of incontinence is

functional

200

Detrusor muscle overactivity can be improved by administration of

botulinum toxin.

201

Transfusion reactions involve RBC destruction caused by

recipient antibodies.

202

A common component of renal calculi is

calcium

203

A patient who was involved in a fall from a tree becomes short of breath. The lung sounds are absent on one side. This patient is experiencing ________ shock.

obstructive

204

Which disorder is associated with a type III hypersensitivity mechanism of injury?

Systemic lupus erythematosus

205

Accumulation of fluid in the pleural space is called

pleural effusion.

206

“Please explain the pathophysiology of osteoarthritis to me,” says another nurse. “Is it just wear and tear so that the cartilage wears out?” Your best response is

“No; cells in bone, cartilage, and the synovial membrane all get activated and secrete inflammatory mediators that destroy cartilage and damage bone.”

207

Autonomic dysreflexia is characterized by

hypertension and bradycardia.

208

A deficiency of von Willebrand factor impairs

platelet adhesion to injured tissue.

209

Overproduction of nitric oxide is an important aspect of the pathophysiologic process of what type of shock?

Septic

210

When a parent asks how they will know if their 2-month-old baby, who is throwing up and has frequent diarrhea, is dehydrated, the nurse’s best response is

“If the soft spot on the top of his head feels sunken in and his mouth is dry between his cheek and his gums, then he is probably dehydrated.”

211

Chronic pancreatitis may lead to

diabetes mellitus.

212

A thyroid gland that grows larger than normal is known as

goiter

213

How is a patient hospitalized with a malignant tumor that secretes parathyroid hormone–related peptide monitored for the resulting electrolyte imbalance?

Serum calcium, bowel function, level of consciousness

214

Hypotension, distended neck veins, and muffled heart sounds are classic manifestations of

cardiac tamponade.

215

The person at highest risk for developing hypernatremia is a person who

receives tube feedings because he or she is comatose after a stroke.

216

The most common agent resulting in nephrotoxicity and subsequent acute tubular necrosis (ATN) in hospitalized patients is

contrast media.

217

Aortic regurgitation is associated with

diastolic murmur.

218

Hepatic encephalopathy is associated with

increased blood ammonia levels.

219

A normal bleeding time in association with normal platelet count, and increased prothrombin time (PT) and INR, is indicative of

vitamin K deficiency.

220

What is the effect on resistance if the radius of a vessel is halved?

Resistance increases by a factor of 16.

221

Patients with structural evidence of heart failure who exhibit no signs or symptoms are classified into which New York Heart Association heart failure class?

Class I

222

The oliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis is characterized by

fluid excess and electrolyte imbalance.

223

What finding should prompt further diagnostic testing in a child presenting with diarrhea?

Blood and mucus in the stools

224

Blood flow throughout the periphery is regulated by

the autonomic nervous system.

225

The most common cause of intrinsic kidney injury is _____ injury.

tubular

226

A patient with pancreatitis may experience muscle cramps secondary to

hypocalcemia.

227

Which response to an injection of ACTH indicates a primary adrenal insufficiency?

No change in serum glucocorticoid level

228

Steatohepatitis is caused by an accumulation of ________ in the liver cells.

fat

229

It is true that Graves disease is

associated with autoantibodies to TSH receptors.

230

Type 2 diabetes mellitus is often associated with

nonketotic hyperosmolality.

231

The condition in which the urethra opens on the dorsal aspect of the penis is known as

epispadias.

232

Administration of which therapy is most appropriate for hypovolemic shock?

Crystalloids

233

Which treatment is helpful in neuropathic pain but not used for acute pain?

Anticonvulsants

234

________ edema occurs when ischemic tissue swells because of cellular energy failure.

Cytotoxic

235

Which electrolyte imbalances cause increased neuromuscular excitability?

Hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia

236

A patient presents to the physician’s office with pinpoint hemorrhages on the skin. The patient is most likely between the ages of _____ years.

4 and 7

237

A loud pansystolic murmur that radiates to the axilla is most likely a result of

mitral regurgitation.

238

Myxedema coma is a severe condition associated with

hypothyroidism

239

Aldosterone secretion is regulated by the presence of ________ in the circulation.

angiotensin II

240

The most appropriate treatment for secondary polycythemia is

measured to improve oxygenation.

241

Indicators that an individual is experiencing high stress include all the following except

pupil constriction.

242

Surgical removal of a gland may result in

hyposecretion

243

Red blood cells obtain nearly all their energy from metabolism of

glucose

244

An increase in organ size and function caused by increased workload is termed

hypertrophy

245

The pain associated with chronic pancreatitis is generally described as ________ in nature.

steady and boring

246

A bone disorder that results from insufficient vitamin D is referred to as

osteomalacia

247

What is necessary for red blood cell production?

Iron

248

Which pulmonary function test result is consistent with a diagnosis of asthma?

Reduced forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)

249

Clinical manifestations of moderate to severe hypokalemia include

muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias.

250

An increase in ADH secretion occurs in response to

dehydration.

251

A laboratory test finding helpful in confirming the diagnosis of iron-deficiency anemia is

elevated total iron-binding capacity.

252

Excessive antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion can cause _____ concentration.

decreased serum sodium

253

A 3-year-old boy who exhibits prolonged bleeding after minor trauma and a prolonged aPTT, but a normal platelet count, is likely to be diagnosed with

hemophilia

254

________ occurs when a brainstem impaired patient exhibits a persistent rhythmic or jerky movement in one or both eyes.

Nystagmus

255

Pulse pressure is defined as

systolic pressure – diastolic pressure.

256

A laboratory test that should be routinely monitored in patients receiving digitalis therapy is

serum potassium.

257

Elevated serum lipase and amylase levels are indicative of

<strong>pancreatitis.</strong><strong>&nbsp;</strong>

258

Improvement in a patient with septic shock is indicated by an increase in

systemic vascular resistance.

259

Tumor necrosis factor α and interleukin-1 contribute to shock states because they induce production of

nitric oxide.

260

Tophi are

deposits of urate crystals in tissues.

261

Which complication of asthma is life threatening?

Status asthmaticus

262

Which is not considered to be a risk factor for thrombus formation?

Thrombocytopenia

263

Nephrotic syndrome does not usually cause

hematuria

264

Lack of α-antitrypsin in emphysema causes

destruction of alveolar tissue.

265

The normal post-void residual urine in the bladder is

less than 100 mL.

266

Pathophysiologically, esophageal varices can be attributed to

portal hypertension.

267

What problem is a patient likely to experience in end-stage renal disease?

Uremia

268

Modulation of pain signals is thought to be mediated by the release of

endorphins

269

First-degree heart block is characterized by

prolonged PR interval.

270

A patient with a productive cough and parenchymal infiltrates on x-ray is demonstrating symptomology of

bacterial pneumonia.

271

Which disorder usually causes skeletal pain and involves significant bone demineralization from vitamin D deficiency?

Osteomalacia

272

Rupture of a cerebral aneurysm should be suspected if the patient reports

sudden, severe headache.

273

The hypersensitivity reaction that does not involve antibody production is type

IV.

274

In older women, osteoporosis is thought to be primarily because of

estrogen deficiency.

275

The pain of nonarticular rheumatism (“growing pain”) is worse

during the night.

276

The most frequent initial symptom of bladder cancer is

hematuria.

277

The microorganism that causes the vast majority of urinary tract infections is

Escherichia coli.

278

In addition to E. coli, a risk factor for development of pyelonephritis is

urinary retention and reflux.

279

Which disorder is caused by inhalation of organic substances?

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

280

People who have osteoporosis are at risk for

bone fractures.

281

The megakaryocyte is a precursor to

platelets

282

Hyperlipidemia occurs in nephrotic syndrome because

hepatocytes synthesize excessive lipids.

283

Inflammation of the sacs that overlie bony prominences is called

bursitis.

284

Hepatitis B is usually transmitted by exposure to

blood or semen.

285

Airway obstruction in chronic bronchitis is because of

thick mucus, fibrosis, and smooth muscle hypertrophy.

286

The strength of the bond between oxygen and hemoglobin is known as the

oxygen-hemoglobin affinity.

287

The cellular change that is considered preneoplastic is

dysplasia

288

A unique characteristic feature of fibromyalgia is the presence of

tender point pain.

289

The urinalysis finding most indicative of cystitis includes the presence of

nitrites