1.
________ waves are not normal for adults but are common for children.
B. theta
5.
The hypothalamus ________.
a.
has the Pulvinar body as part of its structure
b.
is the thermostat of the body since it regulates temperature
c.
mediates sensations
d.
is an important auditory and visual relay center
b.
is the thermostat of the body since it regulates temperature
9.
Which of the following brain regions is a major convergence area for most sensory input before it is sent on to the cerebral cortex?
a.
interthalamic adhesion
c.
thalamus
b.
hypothalamus
d.
epithalamus
c.
thalamus
6.
This area is the main visceral control center of the body.
a.
Primary motor cortex
c.
Hypothalamus
b.
Prefrontal area
d.
Thalamus
c.
Hypothalamus
7.
Sorting of sensory information and relaying it to the appropriate cerebral sensory area occurs in the hypothalamus.
a.
True
b.
False
B. False
8.
Injury to the hypothalamus may result in all of the following except ________.
a.
pathologic sleep
b.
production of excessive quantities of urine
c.
loss of body temperature control
d.
loss of proprioception
D. loss of proprioception
2.
Which of the following brain wave forms, if present in an alert adult, would indicate brain damage?
D. delta
10.
In addition to its vital role in maintaining overall body homeostasis, which brain region synthesizes two major body hormones (ADH and oxytocin)?
a.
hypothalamus
c.
thalamus
b.
epithalamus
d.
interthalamic adhesion
A.hypothalmus
11.
The brain stem consists of the ________.
a.
midbrain only
b.
pons, medulla, cerebellum, and midbrain
c.
midbrain, medulla, and pons
d.
cerebrum, pons, midbrain, and medulla
C.midbrain, medulla, and pons
12.
Which of the following is not a midbrain structure?
a.
cerebral peduncles
c.
red nucleus
b.
corpora quadrigemina
d.
third ventricle
d.
third ventricle
3.
Brain wave amplitude ________.
a.
is the measure of activity of specific individual neurons
b.
reflects the number of neurons firing synchronously
c.
results from subtraction of delta waves from theta waves
d.
is an average of about 1 V
b.
reflects the number of neurons firing synchronously
13.
Which of the following is not part of the basal nuclei?
a.
globus pallidus
c.
substantia nigra
b.
lentiform nucleus
d.
putamen
c.
substantia nigra
14.
Which of the following is/are involved with motor activity (either initiation or coordination)?
a.
red nuclei
c.
Wernicke's area
b.
gustatory cortex
d.
postcentral gyrus
A. red nuclei
18.
The vital centers for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located in the ________.
a.
medulla
c.
cerebrum
b.
midbrain
d.
pons
A.medulla
19.
The arbor vitae refers to ________.
a.
the pleatlike convolutions of the cerebellum
b.
cerebellar white matter
c.
flocculonodular nodes
d.
cerebellar gray matter
b.
cerebellar white matter
27.
Which of the following brain systems is heavily involved in mediating emotional responses?
a.
limbic system
c.
reticular activating system
b.
reticular formation
d.
both a and b
a.
limbic system
20.
Professional ballet dancers have a particularly efficient function of which brain region?
a.
medulla oblongata
c.
cerebral cortex
b.
basal nuclei
d.
cerebellum
D.cerebellum
21.
Of the following brain regions, which, if severely damaged, would result in death?
a.
cerebellum
c.
medulla oblongata
b.
cerebral cortex
d.
basal nuclei
C. medulla oblagota
22.
All of the following are structures of the limbic system except the ________.
a.
cingulate gyrus
c.
hippocampus
b.
caudate nucleus
d.
amygdaloid nucleus
b.
caudate nucleus
23.
One functional center found within the medulla oblongata is a respiratory center involved in the control of the rate and depth of breathing.
a.
True
b.
False
A. ture
24.
The limbic system acts as our emotional, or affective, brain.
a.
True
b.
False
A . ture
26.
The RAS is comprised of specific pathways primarily in the limbic system.
a.
True
b.
False
B. false
25.
The brain area that regulates activities that control the state of wakefulness or alertness of the cerebral cortex is the ________.
a.
limbic system
c.
reticular formation
b.
thalamus
d.
pyramids
c.
reticular formation
4.
A flat EEG is a good indication of deep sleep.
a.
True
b.
False
B. false
5.
Petit mal seizures found in children generally go away with age.
A. Ture
B. False
A. ture
6.
Which statement about epilepsy is most accurate?
a.
The aura in grand mal epilepsy typically occurs as the patient regains consciousness.
b.
During seizures, sensory messages are processed normally but responses are blocked.
c.
Petit mal epilepsy typically begins in adolescence and is often severely disabling.
d.
Epilepsy is often genetically induced but also frequently caused by head trauma, stroke, infection, and tumor
D.Epilepsy is often genetically induced but also frequently caused by head trauma, stroke, infection, and tumor.
7.
The terms fainting and syncope describe the same thing.
a.
True
b.
False
A. Ture
8.
How does the metabolism of a person in deep sleep differ from that of a person in a coma?
a.
if in a coma, a person has no brain waves
b.
a person in a coma does not display consciousness signals
c.
a person in a deep sleep can be aroused
d.
a person in a coma consumes far less oxygen than does a sleeping person
D.a person in a coma consumes far less oxygen than does a sleeping person
9.
Which statement about coma is true?
a.
Coma is defined as total unresponsiveness to stimuli for a long period of time.
b.
Coma is rarely caused by damage to brain stem structures.
c.
Coma is neurologically identical to syncope.
d.
During coma, brain oxygen consumption resembles that of a waking state.
a.
Coma is defined as total unresponsiveness to stimuli for a long period of time.
10.
Theta and delta waves begin to appear.
a.
Stage 4
d.
Stage 2
b.
REM
e.
Stage 1
c.
Stage 3
C. stage 3
11.
The stage when vital signs (blood pressure, heart rate, and body temperature) reach their lowest normal levels.
a.
REM
d.
Stage 4
b.
Stage 3
e.
Stage 1
c.
Stage 2
D. Sage 4
12.
Indicated by movement of the eyes under the lids; dreaming occurs.
a.
REM
d.
Stage 1
b.
Stage 4
e.
Stage 3
c.
Stage 2
A. REM
13.
Very easy to awaken; EEG shows alpha waves; may even deny being asleep.
a.
Stage 2
d.
Stage 3
b.
Stage 1
e.
REM
c.
Stage 4
B. stage 1
14.
Begins about 90 minutes after the onset of sleep.
a.
Stage 4
d.
Stage 3
b.
REM
e.
Stage 1
c.
Stage 2
B. REM
15.
Necessary for emotional health; may be neural "debugging."
a.
REM
d.
Stage 1
b.
Stage 4
e.
Stage 3
c.
Stage 2
A. REM
16.
A person is most likely to have a nightmare during which stage of sleep?
a.
NREM 1
c.
REM
b.
NREM 2
d.
NREM 3 and 4
D. NREM 3 and 4
17.
Theta waves are a brain wave pattern that can be seen during deep sleep and during anesthesia.
B. false
18.
Which statement is not true?
a.
Ten-year-olds are in REM sleep about 1.5-2 hours per night.
b.
Stage 4 sleep increases in old age.
c.
Sleep requirements decline from infancy to early adulthood, level off, then decline again in old age.
d.
Half of infant sleep is composed of REM sleep.
B..
Stage 4 sleep increases in old age.
19.
Of the following memory types, which are those that do not require conscious attention?
a.
declarative memory
c.
working memory
b.
short-term memory
d.
nondeclarative memory
d.
nondeclarative memory
20.
Nondeclarative memories preserve the context in which they are learned.
a.
True
b.
False
B false
21.
Declarative memory is not stored in the ________.
a.
mammillary body
c.
amygdala
b.
thalamus
d.
hippocampus
A. Mammillary body
22.
The corpus striatum plays a special role in ________.
a.
face recognition
c.
fact learning
b.
spatial learning
d.
skill learning
d. Skill learning
23.
The process of linking new facts with old facts already stored in the memory bank is called ________.
a.
rehearsal
c.
consolidation
b.
long-term memory
d.
automatic memory
C. consolidation
24.
Which of the following structures is probably not directly involved in memory?
a.
prefrontal cortex
c.
amygdala
b.
hippocampus
d.
medulla
Medulla
25.
Predict the outcome of attempts to learn new information in an individual with a mutation in the CREB gene.
a.
this individual would display characteristics of “photographic memory”
b.
this individual would learn new information no differently that a person with a normal CREB gene
c.
this individual would develop new memories slowly or not at all
c.
this individual would develop new memories slowly or not at all
26.
The subarachnoid space lies between what two layers of meninges?
a.
dura and epidura
c.
arachnoid and dura
b.
arachnoid and pia
d.
arachnoid and epidura
b.
arachnoid and pia
27.
Meningitis is the most accurate term for inflammation of neurons.
a.
True
b.
False
B. false
28.
The cerebrospinal fluid ________.
a.
is secreted mostly by the ependymal cells lining the brain ventricles
b.
is secreted by the arachnoid villi
c.
is formed mostly by the choroid plexuses
d.
enters the four ventricles after filling and circulating through the subarachnoid space
C. is formed mostly by the choroid plexuses
29.
Why is the blood-brain barrier ineffective against alcohol?
a.
alcohol is water-soluble
b.
it isn’t: alcohol cannot reach the brain
c.
alcohol is lipid-soluble
d.
the blood-brain barrier prevents only blood cells from reaching the brain
c.
alcohol is lipid-soluble
30.
Which of the following would you not find in normal cerebrospinal fluid?
a.
potassium
c.
red blood cells
b.
glucose
d.
protein
c.
red blood cells
31.
The blood-brain barrier is effective against ________.
a.
metabolic waste such as urea
b.
alcohol
c.
anesthetics
d.
nutrients such as glucose
a.
metabolic waste such as urea
32.
Which is the mildest consequence of traumatic brain injury?
a.
swelling
c.
contusion
b.
hemorrhage
d.
concussion
d.
concussion
33.
One disorder of the substantia nigra is Parkinson's disease.
a.
True
b.
False
A. ture
34.
Which of the following structures, if damaged, would produce less cerebrospinal fluid?
a.
arachnoid villi
c.
pia mater
b.
subarachnoid space
d.
choroid plexus
d.
choroid plexus