PETH Flashcards

Additional factors that play a role in increasing ventilation during exercise include all of the following except __________.

Decreasing concentration of H+ in the venous blood

Cardiac output (Q) equals the volume of blood that ejected from the heart each second.

The dorsal respiratory group (DRG) is primarily responsible for inspiratory activity.

At rest, diaphragmatic action accounts for ~ _____% of the total muscular activity required for ventilation.

As the volume of the thoracic cavity increases during inspiration, alveolar pressure __________.

Oxygen levels play a major role in the regulation of respiration.

Normal quiet breathing is accomplished primarily by the __________

Each liter of oxygen consumed is equal to approximately _____ kcal.

Which area is responsible for inhibiting inspiratory impulses to prevent over-distention of the lungs?

The relationship between venous return, the filling of the ventricles during diastole, and stroke volume is known as the Frank-Starling law of the heart.

Epinephrine increases heart rate, while norepinephrine decreases it.

Blood leaves the aorta by way of the __

Which gland is responsible for releasing the hormone epinephrine?

Type I muscle fibers receive a larger percentage of blood flow during submaximal exercise than Type II fibers.

At rest the metarterioles and precapillary sphincters are dilated to increase blood flow to muscles.

A metarteriole is a very small artery.

A well-trained resistance athlete will likely have a higher cardiac output than a well-trained endurance athlete.

Veins transport freshly oxygenated blood, while arteries transport de-oxygenated blood.

Another term for ventricular contraction is depolarization.

The left coronary artery is responsible for transporting a greater percentage of coronary blood flow.

Which factor does not influence cardiac output?

When transitioning from rest to exercise, there is an increase in the release of _______ by the sympathetic postganglionic fibers, which increases heart rate and ventricular contractility.

The volume of blood ejected from the right and left ventricles each minute is the same.

During ventricular diastole the myocardium contracts, while during ventricular systole the myocardium relaxes.

During ventricular diastole the myocardium contracts, while during ventricular systole the myocardium relaxes.

The _____ is the pressure in the systemic system against which the heart must eject blood.

The right ventricle is significantly larger than the left ventricle.

Maximal oxygen consumption (V ̇O2max) is an excellent predictor of athletic success.

Which of the following would be a normal ejection fraction at rest?

At rest what % of cardiac output goes to muscles?

The volume of blood that remains in each ventricle at the end of systole (contraction) is called end-diastolic volume.

Parasympathetic nervous system stimulation of the SA Node decreases heart rate.

An average stroke volume (SV) is __________.

At rest the venous system contains approximately _____ of the total blood volume.

The primary limitation of V ̇O2max, according to the peripheral model, is __________.

Sympathetic nervous system innervation during exercise causes coronary artery constriction.

The _____ is known as the pacemaker of the heart.

The fibrous sac that encloses the myocardium is known as the pericardium

Which chamber of the heart is typically the largest?

Gas exchange takes place __________.

The volume of blood pumped by each ventricle in one minute is known as the __________.

What percentage of all deaths in the Western world is attributable to coronary artery disease?

Endurance-trained athletes use carbohydrate stores more slowly than athletes with non-endurance training.

An average cardiac output at rest would be __________.

A change in body fat level will have no impact on V ̇O2max

V ̇O2max is also known as maximal oxygen consumption and aerobic power

Which of the following adaptations to endurance training is the most responsible for the increase in cardiovascular efficiency at rest and during exercise?

Interval training is one of the most commonly used exercise techniques to improve V ̇O2max.

Women have a lower hemoglobin (Hb) content than men.

Which muscle fiber has an enhanced mitochondrial respiration capacity and is associated with endurance exercise performance?

V ̇O2max values decrease with age regardless of physical activity levels.

Which of the following is the most important factor determining increases in V ̇O2max?

One of the central adaptations that occurs as a result of endurance training is an enhanced ability to transport blood throughout the body.

On average, V ̇O2max values decrease about ____ per year for men after the age of 25.

Which theory suggests that V ̇O2max is limited primarily by the body’s ability to transport oxygen-rich blood to working tissues?

The Ebbeling walk test is a submaximal test of V ̇O2max.

As long as exercise training continues to progress, V ̇O2max has the capacity to increase continually.

Which of the following tests of aerobic power does not rely upon heart rate to calculate V ̇O2max?

Endurance athletes have an increased filling of the left ventricle.

Genetics (heredity) plays only a minor role in determining an individual’s V ̇O2max.

Which of the following tests of aerobic power is considered to be a “maximal” test?

One metabolic equivalent (MET) is equal to _____ ml ∙ kg–1 ∙ min–1.

Exercising at a heart rate of 65–85% of maximum for 20–30 minutes, 3–5 times per week, will increase V ̇O2max.

One of the central adaptations that occurs as a result of endurance training is an enhanced ability to transport blood throughout the body.

World-class endurance athletes who are male will have V ̇O2max values in the range of __________.

On average, males have a V ̇O2max that is ____ higher than women.

The ability of the left ventricle to fill with blood during diastole (ventricular relaxation) is similar between endurance-trained athletes and non-athletes.

Females tend to have V ̇O2max values that are approximately 20% below male values. The primary reason for this disparity is differences in __________.

Well-trained athletes show a ____ decrease in V ̇O2max during the first three weeks of inactivity.

Resistance training has a negligible impact on maximal aerobic capacity.

V ̇O2max decreases ____ per decade after the age of 25–30 years.

The Bruce treadmill test is acknowledged to be a better measurement of aerobic power in individuals with low functional capacities and/or chronic cardiac disease.

Which of the following tests of aerobic power is considered to be a “maximal” test?

A reverse wrist curl would target which muscle?

When performing a squat, the descent phase of the exercise is controlled by eccentric muscular contractions, while the ascent phase is controlled by concentric contractions of the target muscles.

In the starting position of the lat pull-down, the shoulders are in __________ and the elbows are in __________.

Which exercise would specifically target the brachioradialis muscle?

Which exercise would be most appropriate for developing the anterior deltoid muscle?

Which of the following flexibility exercises should be recommended for developing optimal flexibility?

The definition of flexibility is the ability to move actively through a desired range of motion about a joint.

A reverse wrist curl targets the musculature on the dorsal surface of the forearm.

Which of the following stretches is contraindicated and should be avoided?

While performing a standing dumbbell curl, supination is carried out by the biceps brachii and the brachioradialis muscles.

When performing a standard lat pull-down, the hands are in a supinated position.

When performing a standing barbell curl, the hands would be in which position?

When performing a standing calf raise, the plantar flexor muscles of the lower leg are targeted.

What type of stretching uses the body’s momentum to stretch the muscles?

A standing military press utilizes the anterior deltoid for shoulder flexion.

Match the appropriate exercise with the primary body part (listed below) being trained.

The triceps brachii plays a significant role during the bench press exercise.

Flexibility training is best done immediately prior to performing a warm-up.

Which of the following stretches may place excessive pressure on the cervical spine?

Complete the following statement: Exercise is __________.

The American Society of Exercise Physiologists emphasizes exercise physiology as a research discipline.

Which of the following is NOT true for board certified exercise physiologists?

The American Society of Exercise Physiologists provides licensure for exercise physiologists.

There is currently a well-defined career path for certified exercise physiologists.

The older population (> 65 years) in the United States is expected to __________

The most important change in exercise physiology over the last 50 years has been __________.

It is becoming clear that exercise physiology must be recognized as a __________ profession and not a(n) __________ discipline.

The American Society of Exercise Physiologists was founded in _____

The emphasis of the certified exercise physiologist is to conduct research into the physiological mechanisms that contribute to health and athletic performance.

All individuals with degrees in Exercise Science are exercise physiologists.

Research suggests that for every 1 MET that a patient attains, there is a corresponding reduction in annual mortality of _____.

There is a dose–response relationship between exercise and health-related benefits.

Exercise physiology is a healthcare profession.

Members of the American Society of Exercise Physiologists are committed to __________.

An academic major that prepares students for a career as an exercise instructor, personal trainer, or strength and conditioning specialist is ___________.

Exercise physiologists are qualified to determine the appropriate exercise intervention and intensity based on changes in functional and physiologic capacity, concomitant illness, and chronic or debilitating disease.

Which of the following is NOT a health benefit of regular exercise?

It is important for the future of the profession of exercise physiologists that individuals adopt an entrepreneurial attitude toward their profession.

Business skills are an important factor for the profession of exercise physiology.

An individual who organizes, operates, and creates a business is known as __________.

Many people are drawn to a degree in exercise physiology due to the high salaries.

The first professional organization of exercise physiologists in the United States is __________.

Which of the following would result in the revocation of certification?

Which of the following is NOT required to be eligible to sit for the ASEP certification exam?

Which of the following venues would be outside of the scope of practice for a board-certified exercise physiologist?

Autonomy refers to specific government oversight of the profession of exercise physiology.

In the event that a board-certified exercise physiologist has been alleged to have committed misconduct, the ASEP Professional Practice and Discipline Committee will contact the exercise physiologist with the allegations. The exercise physiologist will have _____ days in which to respond.

On-going research in the exercise sciences is an important aspect of the profession of exercise physiology because it is an evidence-based practice.

The profession of exercise physiology has a long history in the United States.

The professionalization of exercise physiology requires __________.

Which of the following is NOT a key component of the ASEP Code of Ethics?

All exercise physiology programs at colleges and universities must attain accreditation in order to offer a major in exercise physiology.

The American Society of Exercise Physiologists provides __________ for exercise physiologists.

Exercise physiology is a healthcare profession.

When an academic program becomes accredited, it means that all graduates of that program are automatically board-certified as exercise physiologists.

To become certified as an exercise physiologist, one must demonstrate academic knowledge as well as practical abilities.

Which of the following is NOT consistent with the mission statement of the American Society of Exercise Physiologists?

According to the ASEP Standards of Professional Practice, certified exercise physiologists are only qualified to work with “apparently healthy” individuals.

A certified exercise physiologist (ECP) is performing an initial physical screening on a new client and notices that the client’s blood pressure is 155/95. Is it within the scope of practice of the EPC to diagnose hypertension in this client?

According to the ASEP Code of Ethics, certified exercise physiologists must use scientifically valid training methods.

According to the ASEP Code of Ethics, it would be unacceptable for a certified exercise physiologist to endorse a nutritional supplement.

Which of the following would be outside of the scope of professional practice for a certified exercise physiologist?

The net energy yield of anaerobic glycolysis is __________.

Pyruvate is six-carbon molecule.

The Krebs cycle takes place in the mitochondrion.

Which enzyme is responsible for breaking the bonds between phosphates in ATP, thus releasing energy?

No oxygen is necessary during the Krebs cycle.

What is the net energy production of one molecule of pyruvate in the Krebs cycle?

In the second step of glycolysis, glucose-6-phosphate is transformed into __________.

Phosphocreatine hydrolysis regenerates ATP by giving its phosphate to ADP to form ATP.

The end product of glycolysis is __________.

The mitochondrion is impermeable to NAD.

The process of forming glycogen from glucose molecules is known as _____.

In the first stop of glycolysis, glucose is phosphorylated by ATP, which converts the glucose to __________.

Substrate phosphorylation does not require oxygen.

Fructose-1,6-diphosphate is cleaved into how many three-carbon compounds during glycolysis?

The electron transporter that is used during glycolysis is __________

The rate at which glucose can be metabolized is controlled by the rate at which pyruvate can be converted into lactate.

What is the final electron acceptor at the conclusion of the electron transport chain?

CO2 is release during __________.

When glucose molecules are combined together they form ________

Glycolysis takes place in the mitochondria of a cell.

Glycolysis is an oxygen-dependent process.

As glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is converted into 1,3 diphosphoglycerate, _____ hydrogen atoms are released from each molecule of G-3-P.

Oxidative phosphorylation is an ATP-generating process that takes place in the __________.

The catabolic process of breaking down glycogen into glucose molecules is called __________.

The primary function of the Krebs cycle is to supply electrons to the electron transport chain and pyruvate molecules for the citric acid cycle.

ATP is generated within the electron transport system via oxidative phosphorylation.

The smallest contractile unit within a muscle is called the ____

Which muscle fiber type is characterized by a high activity of oxidative phosphorylation?

The primary filaments in a muscle fiber are known as actin and myosin.

Skeletal muscle accounts for approximately ____ of total body weight.

The muscular hypertrophy that occurs during puberty is a result of a significant increase in the number of muscle fibers per muscle.

The medulla oblongata is the region of the brain that is largely responsible for motor control.

The splitting of ATP releases stored energy that produces movement of the myosin cross-bridges, which results in the sliding of the thick and thin filaments past each other. This is known as the sliding filament theory.

Type I muscle fibers have a higher concentrati

Which muscle fiber type has the highest concentration of myoglobin?

The muscles store enough ATP and creatine phosphate (CP) to power muscular contractions for several seconds.

The primary contribution of creatine phosphate (CP) to energy metabolism is the donation of a phosphate group to ADP, which subsequently forms ATP.

The term isotonic refers to a constant force or resistance.

Myosin is known as a thin filament, while actin is known as a thick filament.

________ work occurs when the movement of a joint is kept at a constant velocity.

The central nervous system consists of __________.

All levels of connective tissue that surround the muscle extend beyond the muscle and are continuous with the tendon.

Type I muscle fibers have a higher concentration of sarcoplasmic reticulum in comparison to type II fibers.

Skeletal muscle accounts for approximately ____ of total body weight.

__________ work occurs when the movement of a joint is kept at a constant velocity.

The primary filaments in a muscle fiber are known as actin and myosin.

Which muscle fiber type is characterized by a high activity of oxidative phosphorylation?

Myosin is known as a thin filament, while actin is known as a thick filament.

The muscular hypertrophy that occurs during puberty is a result of a significant increase in the number of muscle fibers per muscle.

The central nervous system consists of __________.

The muscles store enough ATP and creatine phosphate (CP) to power muscular contractions for several seconds.

Type I muscle fibers have a higher concentration of sarcoplasmic reticulum in comparison to type II fibers.

The primary contribution of creatine phosphate (CP) to energy metabolism is the donation of a phosphate group to ADP, which subsequently forms ATP.

The splitting of ATP releases stored energy that produces movement of the myosin cross-bridges, which results in the sliding of the thick and thin filaments past each other. This is known as the sliding filament theory.

Blood doping is also known as gene doping.

An ethical action is one that provides greatest good for the largest number of people while minimizing the potential for harm.

All sports supplements are safe as long as they are used in the recommended dosages.

All supplements that are illegal would be unethical to use in sports. Therefore, all supplements that are legal are also ethical to use.

Food cannot be considered an ergogenic aid.

Only a small percentage of collegiate athletes use supplements or illegal performance-enhancing drugs.

Creatine use is banned by the NCAA for all collegiate athletes.

Winning is the most important aspect of competitive sports. Therefore, it is acceptable to have lower ethical standards in order to be more competitive.

The framework for ethical decision making includes all of the following except __________.

Creatine enhances performance by increasing muscle stores of phosphocreatine (PC).

According to the World Anti-Doping Code, if a substance meets at least two of three criteria, it may be banned for use by athletes. Which of the following is not one of those criteria?

The underlying purpose of the exercise physiologist’s code of ethics is to promote professionalism, prevent fraudulent practices, and to protect the public from unscrupulous and untrained providers.

According to the ASEP Code of Ethics, if a certified exercise physiologist had knowledge of a doctor who was illegally prescribing anabolic steroids to athletes, he/she would be required to call attention to this unethical behavior.

Human growth hormone (HGH) was banned by the International Olympic committee in _____.

What year did the International Olympic Committee adopt a drug-testing policy and ban the use of specific drugs?

Anabolic steroids mimic the effect of which hormone?

________ is the most widely used ergogenic aid among athletes who want to build muscle.

The primary goal of the ASEP Code of Ethics is to prevent the certified exercise physiologist from being filed with a lawsuit.

How many amino acids are characterized as being “essential”?

High intensity sprint-style exercise is more dependent upon __________ stores than long endurance-style exercise.

Minerals that are required in amounts greater than 100 mg per day are called trace minerals.

For optimal glycogen replacement, athletes should consume a carbohydrate-rich meal immediately after exercise.

The fat soluble vitamins include all of the following except __________.

A pre-event meal should be high in fiber and low in protein.

Elite athletes who are engaged in high-intensity training for 3–5 hours per day should consume approximately how much carbohydrate daily?

Which of the following is not one of the eight nutrients that are central to the U.S. Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for a balanced diet?

Protein is made up of long chains of glucose molecules.

The recommended daily energy intake from protein is __________.

Each gram of fat has _____ kcal of energy.

Which mineral plays an important role in enhancing the effectiveness of insulin?

If athletes are eating a well-balanced diet, they do not need vitamin supplements.

A normal adult is made up of 60–75% water.

Athletes should consume a diet that is high in “sports foods” such as protein powders and vitamin supplements for optimal performance.

The water-soluble vitamins include all of the following except __________

Each gram of protein provides ____ kcal of energy.

As exercise intensity increases, so does the percentage of energy derived from fat.

For individuals who exercise moderately, eating less than _____ kcal ∙ d–1 will put a serious strain on their health and nutritional needs.

The RDA for protein for a sedentary adult is __________.

The recommended energy intake from protein is 10–15%.

The best sources of calcium are _____.

Insulin, a hormone released by the pancreas, is responsible for increasing blood sugar levels.

Which of the following blood sugar levels would be considered hypoglycemia?

Vitamin C enhances the absorption of dietary iron.

Vitamin C supplementation has been shown to improve performance in endurance sports.

An optimal diet should have approximately __________ carbohydrates.

The amino acid alanine may be converted into glucose by the liver.

Evidence indicates that exercise may be able to treat depression equally as well as prescription medications.

The basic components of exercise prescription include all of the following except __________.

Which of the following is NOT an adaptation to exercise training?

Which of the following is not one of the basic components of an exercise prescription?

Exercise is medicine.

A chronic inflammatory disease in which inflammatory cells and lipids accumulate within the artery wall.

Speed is a significant component of muscular power.

The minimum threshold for increasing muscular strength is approximately _____% of 1RM.

Low-to-moderate intensity exercise is sufficient to produce health benefits.

To obtain the health-related benefits of physical activity, it is essential to choose the correct form of exercise.

The current physical activity recommendation for children suggests 60 minutes of moderate-to-vigorous activity on a daily basis.

Angiogenesis is a chronic inflammatory disease in which inflammatory cells and lipids accumulate within the arterial walls.

What percentage of the population is overweight/obese?

Muscular strength is defined as the maximal force a muscle (or muscle group) can generate once.

Endurance exercise training will reduce both systolic and diastolic blood pressure readings by approximately 10 mmHg in individuals with mild hypertension.

Sarcopenia results in a greater loss of type I muscle fibers.

One metabolic equivalent (MET) is equal to ______ ml ∙ kg–1 ∙ min–1.

Exercise plays a small role in minimizing the risk of chronic disease.

If an individual is exercising at an intensity level of 13 METs, their oxygen consumption would be __________.

Muscle strength declines by _____ per decade after the age of 50 years.

Using the Karvonen formula, calculate a training heart rate of 65% HRR using the following information:

Male
Age: 55
Resting HR: 60
Max HR: 170
Blood pressure: 130/85

Strength training is contraindicated for individuals with osteoarthritis.

The age-related decrease in muscle mass is known as __________.

Regular exercise may improve quality of sleep.

Which of the following is a risk factor for heart disease?

According to the original RPE scale, an exercise intensity of 8 would be categorized as “very hard.”

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for heart disease?

Cardiovascular disease accounts for ___% of all deaths in the U.S.

Muscle strength declines by _____ per decade after the age of 50 years.

Which of Newton’s laws of motion would best explain why long-distance runners wear running shoes with cushion in the soles and sprinters do not.

Lengthening of the radius increases angular velocity.

Quantitative biomechanical analysis does not rely upon mathematical computation or statistical analysis.

You are watching a client perform a back squat and you notice that she has an excessive forward-leaning torso. This would be an example of _____ biomechanical analysis.Qualitative

Which of the following would be the best example of a temporarily stored counterforce?

Why do figure skaters draw their arms in close to their bodies when performing a high-speed spinning movement?

Force is the product of __________.

To increase the momentum of a baseball bat during a swing, the hitter should “choke up” on the bat.

If an object is dropped from a height of 5 feet, it will have reached a velocity of _____ feet per second after it has fallen 4 feet.

Translatory motion is movement in which all body parts move in the same direction at the same speed.

Velocity is a vector quantity.

Linear motion is __________.

Acceleration is a change in vector.

Newton’s first law (law of inertia) states that if one body exerts a force on another body, the second body will exert an equal and opposite force on the first body.

“Shin splints” is a type tendinitis of the lower leg that is typically an overuse injury. Which of Newton’s laws would best explain the occurrence of this injury?

Which would hit the ground first, a golf ball dropped from a height of two feet or a baseball dropped from the same height?

During a normal running stride, when the foot strikes the running surface, it imparts a force against the surface. Subsequently, the running surface imparts a counter force against the foot. This is an example of __________.

Force is the product of __________.

A vector has both magnitude and direction.

Steve and John are having an arm wrestling match. John produces a greater amount of _____ and, as a result, wins the match.

During a baseball pitch, as the forearm rotates around the elbow joint, this would be an example of angular motion.

In angular movements of body segments, the maximum effective force and velocity occurs when the limb is at right angles to the direction in which the object is moved.

Rotary motion is rotation around a(n) __________.

Which of the following is NOT one of the components of a lever system?

Most bony levers have a force arm that is shorter than the resistance arm.

The force exerted by a muscle to move an object is comprised of two components: the rotational component and the stabilizing component.

During a muscular contraction, as a joint decreases, its angle below 90° there would be a(n) ______ in the stabilizing force.

A third-class lever is able to overcome a large resistance with a relatively small force.

What is the most common axis or fulcrum in human movement?

Rotational force is greatest at _____.

The __________ the angle (up to 90°), the greater the rotary force and the __________ the stabilizing force.

Performing a sit-up would be an example of which type of lever system?

For each of the following, state the type of lever (first, second, or third class).

Third-class levers are more efficient than first-class levers.

You are performing a standing dumbbell side raise to work the deltoid muscle. This would be an example of a _____-class lever.

When the force arm is longer than the resistance arm, this favors _____.

The two primary purposes of levers are to increase force or to increase speed.

In a first-class lever, the fulcrum is located between the force and the resistance.

Most of the muscles in the human body are _____ levers.

When performing a seated dumbbell curl, the biceps brachii muscle creates internal force that is transmitted via the tendon to the forearm. This force production is known as __________.

Which is the most efficient class of levers?

Why is it more difficult to perform a lateral raise when the arm is fully extended than when the elbow is bent at a 45° angle?

The rotational component is __________ to the bone, and the stabilizing component is __________ to the bone.

If the biceps brachii tendon insertion point were moved closer to the elbow, there would be a(n) _______ in strength development.

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