Data Collected as Part of Cultural Assessment Origins and Family
- Where born; if in other country, length of time in United States and circumstances
- Decision making within family
- Cultural group(s) identified with; presence of social network
- Important cultural practices
4 c's in cultural assessment
- What do you Call the problem
- How do you Cope with the problem
- What are your Concerns regarding the problem
- What do you think Caused the problem
The process of developing cultural competence consists of four interrelated constructs which are:
cultural desire, self-awarness, cultural knowledge, Cultural skill
_______________ means conveying acceptance of the patients health beliefs while sharing information, encouraging self-efficacy, and strengthening the patients coping resources.
cultural competency
a Chinese American person might eat hamburgers together with traditional Chinese vegetables, might speak ‘Chinglish,’ and might mix in social groups that include both Chinese and American friends.
biculturism
________the individual has a dual pattern of identification and chooses which aspects of the individuals original culture he or she wishes to retain.
biculturism
A Native American loses his Native identity after living in Chicago for 10 years is an example of ____________
acculturation
_____________is a process by which a person gives up his or her original identity and develops a new cultural identity by becoming absorbed into a more dominant cultural group.
assimilation
_________________is the process of acquiring new attitudes, roles, customs, or behaviors as a result of contact with another culture.
acculturation
_______ is common among those who are far from their native land, among the refugee, migrants, etc. An immigrant from Chine develops a preference for Western foods and music
Acculturation
A high school student from the United States spends a summer abroad with a family in Switzerland is an example of
enculturation
the process by which a person learns the norms, values and behaviors of a culture, similar to socialization.
enculturation
The genital stage is the last stage of Freud's psychosexual theory of personality development, and begins in puberty. It is a time of adolescent sexual experimentation, the successful resolution of which is settling down in a loving one-to-one relationship with another person in our 20's.
...
fixation at the oral stage may result in a person gaining sexual
pleasure primarily from kissing and oral sex, rather than sexual
intercourse.
true or false
trueeee
The child becomes aware of anatomical sex differences, which sets in motion the conflict between erotic attraction, resentment, rivalry, jealousy and fear and range
stage 3 phallic, 3-6
Acquisition of knowledge and skills.
The latency stage is the
forth stage of psychosexual development, spanning the period of six
years to puberty. During this stage the libido is dormant and no
further psychosexual development takes place (latent means hidden).
and range
stage 4 latency 6-12
Capacity to withhold or expel feces and range
stage 2 anal 18 mon-3yr
Pleasure from oral activities such as sucking.
stage 1 oral
Believed that personality is the result of how individuals resolve conflicts.
Freud psychosocial development
The review of life stage and the range
65+ and integrity vs despair
this stage is related to feeling part of the bigger picture, parenting, teaching and guiding life and the range
generativity vs stagnation 25-65
during this stage we learnt o share ourselves more intimately with someone other than a family memeber, stage & range plzzz
intimacy vs isolation, 18-25 yrs
A pt states "I don't know what I want to be when I grow up" what developmental theory is this, what stage, and whats the range?
Erikson, Identity vs. Role confusion,11-18
This stage involves two identities sexual and occupational, success in this stage leads to the virtue of fidelity, list range
Identity v role confusion (11-18)
If a person is woken up from stage 3 or 4 they could be disoriented for a brief period of time before regaining awareness. 75-80% of sleep is spent in NREM stages.
75-80
how long can you expect a pt to be in REM?
20
which would you give to a patient that cant swallow and has an intact gi?
a. enteral
b. parenteral
b.
child in _____overweight
a. 90-100th
b.80-90th
c. 85-95th
c.
Secondary: screens to detect diseases. a.Lipid
b.BMI
c.
blood glucose
d. all above
d.
plan of care would be, Healthy eating like food labels that state four marker nutrients: calcium, iron, vitamin A and ______
a. b2
b. vitamin c
c. folic acid
b.
which would you look test to rule out anemia?
a. calcium
b.
phosphorus
c. vitam D level
d. iron
e. all
e.
which trimester is most important in pregnancy to take calcium for bone growth
a. 1st
b. 2
c.3rd
d.4th
c.
a pt who is ordered Fish beans, turkey, and to take with citrus because it increases absorption, that is absorbed in the duodenum and the partial of the juojenum could have which deficiency
a. clacium
b. iron
c. sodium
d. folate
b.
pt with dysphagia should have a mechanical soft diet
a.
yes
b. no
a.
low fiber is recommenced when giving a soft diet
a. true
b. false
b.
which isnt a major mineral?
a. calcium
b. phosphorus
c. magnesium
d.
hydrogen
e.sodium
f. potassium
e. chloride
d.
Fat-Soluble Vitamins:
a. a.
b. k
c. d
d.e
e.
all of the above
e.
Dermatitis, impaired taste, impaired growth, low level of alkaline
phosphatase enzyme
a. mg
b. zinc
c. folic acid
d. carotenoids
b
Hypertension, dysrhythmia, preeclampsia
a. mg
b.
zinc
c. folic acid
d. carotenoids
a.
Pernicious anemia, psychiatric disorders
a. vit b12
b. vit
b 1
c. vit c
d. vit d
a.
patient has a decreased gag reflex, left-sided weakness, and drooling. Which action will the nurse take when feeding this patient?
a. Position in semi-Fowler’s.
b. Flex head with chin down.
c. Place food on left side.
d. Offer fruit juice.
b.
Vitamin A is also a component of ______, a protein in your eyes that
allows you to see in low light conditions
a. lutein
b.
pellagra
c. rhodopsin
d. anasarca
c.
________can be added to flour processes in US and other countries as
a important reduction in neural tube deficits (NTD)( think babies who
have brain, spinal cord issues).
a. vit C def
b. folic
acid
c. lutein
d. zeaxanthin
b.
Causes Pellagra (4D’s: Dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia, and
death).
a. vit C def.
b. vit B def
c. vit A
def
d. vit D def
b.
Causes Scurvy, most common in sailors until the 18th
century.
a. vit C def.
b. vit B def
c. vit A
def
d. vit D def
a.
Long chain omega 3 fatty acids that support retinal development,
neurotransmitter production and brain function.
a.
Docosahexaenoic acid (DHA) and eicosatetraenoic acid
b.
antibiotics, corticosteroids
c. temazepam & zolpidem
d. ramelton
a.
which nutrient deficiency can result in pre mature neurological
issues and affects the cellular membrane
a. carbs
b. fatty
acid
c. protein
d. none of the above
b.
most calorie-dense nutrient, composed of triglycerides
a.
carbs
b. fatty acid
c. protein
d. none of the above
b.
Shift in body fat and protein for energy resulting in weight loss and
accumulation of ketone (especially if insulin isn’t available)
a.
vitamin b deficiency
b. carb deficiencies
c.
anasarca
d. sarcopenia
b.
When _______ isn't available the body turns to protein which results
in diminished cell growth and repair
a. fatty acid
b.
ketones
c. vitamin B
d. cabrs
d.
major energy source, composed of carbon, hydrogen, and
oxygen.
a. fatty acid
b. carbs
c.protein
d. none
a.
Adult: Insufficient circulating protein in the blood can lead to
_______ (severe generalized edema).
a. kwashiorkor
b.
marasmus
c. anasarca
d. sarcopenia
c.
Older adults, the loss of muscle mass _____: (normal part of aging)
is difficult to replace.
a. kwashiorkor
b. marasmus
c.
anasarca
d. sarcopenia
d.
It's most common in some developing regions where babies and children
do not get enough protein alone in their diet. The main sign
of________is too much fluid in the body's tissues, which causes
swelling under the skin (oedema).
a. kwashiorkor
b.
marasmus
c. anasarca
d. sarcopenia
a.
severe undernourishment causing an infant's or child's weight to be
significantly low for their age (e.g., below 60 percent of
normal).
a. anorexia
b. marasmus
c. anasarca
d. sarcopenia
b.
Drugs with anti nutrient or catabolic properties that increase risk
for malnutrition
a. Docosahexaenoic acid (DHA) and
eicosatetraenoic acid
b. antibiotics, corticosteroids
c.
temazepam & zolpidem
d. ramelton
b.
Transports nutrients and drugs in the blood.
a. vitamins
b.
oxygen
c. protein
d. all of the above
c.
(RDI) make up the second set of values on food labels and consist of nutrients such as total fat, saturated fat, cholesterol, carbohydrates, fiber, sodium, and potassium
a. true
b. false
b.
a nurse is teaching a health class about the ChooseMyPlate program. Which guidelines will the nurse include in the teaching session?
a. Balancing sodium and potassium
b. Decreasing water consumption
c. Increasing portion size
d. Balancing calories
d.
A nurse is describing the ChooseMyPlate program to a patient. Which
statement from the patient indicates successful learning?
a. “I
can use this to make healthy lifestyle food choices.”
b. “I can
use this to count specific calories of food.”
c. “I can use this
for my baby girl.”
d. “I can use this when I am sick.”
a.
a patient who has been diagnosed with cardiovascular disease and
placed on a low-fat diet, asks the nurse, “How much fat should I have?
I guess the less fat, the better.” Which information will the nurse
include in the teaching session?
a. Cholesterol intake needs to
be less than 300 mg/day.
b. Fats have no significance in health
and the incidence of disease. c. A
ll fats come from external
sources, so this can be easily controlled.
d. Deficiencies occur
when fat intake falls below 10% of daily nutrition.
d.
In providing diet education for a patient on a low-fat diet, which
information is important for the nurse to share?
a.
Polyunsaturated fats should be less than 7% of the total calories.
b. Trans fat should be less than 7% of the total calories.
c. Unsaturated fats are found mostly in animal sources.
d. Saturated fats are found mostly in animal sources.
d.
A nurse is caring for a patient with a postsurgical wound. When
planning care, which goal will be the priority?
a. Reduce
dependent nitrogen balance.
b. Maintain negative nitrogen
balance.
c. Promote positive nitrogen balance.
d.
Facilitate neutral nitrogen balance.
...
nurse is teaching a patient about proteins that must be obtained
through the diet since they cannot be synthesized in
the body.Which term used by the patient indicates teaching is
successful?
a. Amino acids
b. Triglycerides
c.
Dispensable amino acids
d. Indispensable amino acids
d.
A nurse is asked how many kcal/g are provided by fats?
a.
3
b. 4
c. 6
d. 9
d.
In general, when a patient’s energy requirements are completely met
by kilocalorie (kcal) intake in food, which assessment finding will
the nurse observe?
a. Weight increases.
b. Weight
decreases.
c. Weight does not change.
d. Weight fluctuates daily.
c.
nurse is teaching about the energy needed at rest to maintain
life-sustaining activities for a specific period of time. What form of
energy is the nurse discussing?
a. Resting energy
expenditure
b. Basal metabolic rate
c. Nutrient density
d. Nutrients
b.
the site of fat and fat-soluble vitamin absorption
a. middle
sec. jujunum
b. upper portion duodendum
c. lower section
ileum
d. colon
...
the primary site for absorbing trace minerals.
a. middle sec. jujunum
b. upper portion duodendum
c.
lower section ileum
d. colon
b
Source of fatty acid, necessary for growth and development;
energy
a. Carbohydrates
b. Protein
c. Fat
c.
Facilitates growth and repair of tissues; energy source
a.
Carbohydrates
b. Protein
c. Fat
b.
Primary source of fuel and energy
a. Carbohydrates
b.
Protein
c. Fat
a
a.Vitamin A
b. Vitamin D
c.Vitamin E
d. Vitamin K
...
Pancreatic enzymes finalize digestion in the small bowel, with fats
being broken down into fatty acids. Bile, produced in the liver and
stored in the gallbladder, is involved in fat digestion by modifying
dietary fats into emulsions for better absorption.
a.
true
b. false
a.
Chemical breakdown begins in the oral cavity. Saliva is a mucous-like
fluid that contains the digestive enzyme _________, which
assists with the process of food breakdown and aids in the chewing and
swallowing process
a. amylase
b. lutien
c.
islet
d. progesterone
a.
Where does chemical breakdown begin?
a. stomach
b. oral
cavity
c. duodendum
b.
Digestive enzymes are responsible for the chemical breakdown of food matter; this process is most efficient when food is thoroughly chewed, thus increasing the surface of food particles for enzyme action.
...
Adequate oral intake of nutrients (and water) involves access to food sources, informed food choices, and efficient chewing (mastication) and swallowing abilities.
...
Examples of phytochemicals include lutein (associated with the green color of vegetables) and lycopene (found in high amounts in tomato products). Another popular phytochemical is resveratrol in red grapes and peanuts.
...
Vitamins and minerals are ___ because they are required in minute amounts.
micronutrients
Macronutrients are the kilocalorie (kcal) energy-containing nutrients known as carbohydrates, proteins, and fats.
...
very light sleep, few min long, muscle relaxation, loss of awareness,
vitals/metabolism decrease, awakens easily, feels relaxed and
drowsy
a. N1
b. N2
c. N3
d. N4
a.
deeper sleep, 10-20 minutes, vitals and metabolism continue to slow,
50% of the total sleep cycle, increased relaxation, requires slightly
more stimulation to awaken.
a. N1
b. N2
c. N3
d. N4
b.
Rem accounts for 20-25 %
a. true
b. false
a.
slow waves sleep or DELTA sleep, vitals signs decreasing, more
difficult to awaken, physiological rest and restoration, reduced
sympathetic activity
a. N1
b. N2
c. N3
d. N4
...
Polysonogram is what is used to do a sleep study
...