BIO 202 EXAM 3 Flashcards

Plasma is closest in composition to

A) urine B) isotonic saline solution. C) sterile water .D) CSF. E) interstitial fluid.

The percent fraction of formed elements relative to whole blood is the

A) viscosity. B) specific gravity. C) packed volume. D) hematocrit. E) differential cell count.

Which of the following statements about blood is false?

A) Blood contains buffers that control pH .B) The normal pH of blood is 6.8 to 7.0. C) Blood is more viscous than water. D) Blood is about 55 percent plasma .E) Cells in blood comprise the formed elements.

Each of the following is a characteristic of whole blood, except a

A) temperature of approximately 38 degrees Celsius. B) viscosity about the same as water. C) pH of 7.4. D) built-in system for clotting. E) red color from hemoglobin.

The most abundant component of plasma is

A) ions.B) proteins.C) water.D) gases.E) nutrients.

Which of the following is not one of the formed elements of blood?

A) RBCsB) plateletsC) antibodiesD) lymphocytesE) basophils

Thyroid-binding globulin is an example of which kind of plasma protein?

A) metalloproteinB) steroid-bindingC) hormone-bindingD) apolipoproteinE) transport albumin

Transferrin is an example of which kind of plasma protein?

A) metalloproteinB) steroid-binding proteinC) hormone-binding proteinD) apolipoproteinE) transport albumin

Which plasma protein transports fatty acids and some hormones?

A) apolipoproteinB) steroid-binding proteinC) hormone-binding proteinD) albuminE) gamma globulin

Which organ secretes most of the plasma proteins?

A) pancreasB) heartC) kidneyD) brainE) liver

The most abundant proteins in blood plasma are

A) globulins.B) transport proteins.C) albumins.D) lipoproteins.E) fibrinogens.

Plasma proteins essential in body defense are the

A) albumins.B) fibrinogens.C) immunoglobulins.D) metalloproteins.E) lipoproteins.

A plasma protein essential for blood clotting is

A) albumin alpha.B) fibrinogen.C) immunoglobulin A.D) metalloprotein D.E) lipoprotein C.

All of the following are functions of blood except

A) regulating pH.B) transporting gases and hormones.C) generating action potentials.D) defending against pathogens.E) regulating ion concentration.

In what way does blood assist in immune function?

A) Platelets allow clotting.B) Red blood cells transport gases.C) White blood cells defend against pathogens.D) Albumins transport hormones.E) Plasma antibodies and white blood cells defend against pathogens.

You have spent 24 hours traveling from the U.S to New Zealand, on quite a few airplanes with many stops. Because of the stress, changes in time zones, and short blocks of time between planes, you find yourself tired with a headache when you arrive. You are severely dehydrated. A hematocrit value of your blood would be ________ than normal because ________.

A) lower; more red blood cells are being made by the bone marrowB) higher; you have less blood plasma volumeC) lower; the bone marrow is making fewer red blood cells due to the latitude of the airplanesD) higher; more plasma proteins are made by the liverE) lower; you have less blood plasma volume

All the circulating red blood cells in an adult originate in the

A) heart.B) thymus.C) spleen.D) red bone marrow.E) lymph tissue.

Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone

A) thymosin.B) angiotensin.C) erythropoietin.D) thymopoietin.E) renin.

An obstruction in blood flow to the kidneys would result in

A) pernicious anemia.B) renal anemia.C) increased erythropoiesis.D) decreased erythropoiesis.E) increased sensitivity to vitamin K.

The level of erythropoietin in the blood would rise due to all of the following except

A) anemia.B) high altitude.C) as a consequence of hemorrhage.D) periods of fasting.E) when blood flow to the kidneys is disrupted.

Eileen is a strict vegan and therefore eats no animal products. She develops an anemia that her doctor thinks is caused by a nutritional deficiency. Which of the following is the likeliest candidate?

A) aplastic anemiaB) iron-deficiency anemiaC) sickle cell anemiaD) vitamin K deficiencyE) vitamin B6 deficiency

The waste product bilirubin is produced from

A) globin chains of hemoglobin.B) heme molecules plus iron.C) heme molecules lacking iron.D) iron found in hemoglobin molecules.E) abnormal proteins found in red blood cells.

Most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is

A) excreted by the kidneys.B) excreted by the liver.C) excreted by the intestines.D) recycled to the red bone marrow.E) stored in yellow bone marrow.

A person's blood type is determined by the

A) size of the RBCs.B) volume of the RBCs.C) chemical composition of the hemoglobin.D) presence of specific glycoproteins on the cell membrane.E) shape of the RBCs.

People with type AB blood are considered the "universal recipient" for transfusions because

A) their blood cells lack A and B antigens.B) their blood lacks A or B agglutinins.C) their blood is plentiful in A and B agglutinins.D) they usually have very strong immune systems.E) they are usually Rh negative.

Anti-D antibodies are present in the blood of

A) all individuals with type AB blood.B) Rh negative individuals who have been exposed to the D surface antigen.C) all Rh positive individuals.D) Rh positive individuals who have been exposed to the D surface antigen.E) all Rh negative individuals.

Which of the following combinations may result in the hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A) mother Rh positive, baby Rh negativeB) mother Rh negative, baby Rh negativeC) mother Rh negative, baby Rh positiveD) mother type A+, baby type O+E) mother Rh positive, baby Rh positive

You have type B positive blood. What are all the types of packed RBCs you can receive?

A) A positive and A negativeB) B positive and B negativeC) A positive and B positiveD) B positive, B negative, O positive, O negativeE) O positive and O negative

The process of lymphopoiesis occurs mainly in the

A) spleen.B) kidneys.C) lymph nodes.D) red bone marrow.E) thymus.

The most numerous white blood cells in peripheral circulation are the

A) neutrophils.B) eosinophils.C) basophils.D) lymphocytes.E) monocytes.

White blood cells that release histamine at the site of an injury are

A) neutrophils.B) eosinophils.C) basophils.D) lymphocytes.E) monocytes.

Which of the following descriptions best matches the term colony stimulating factor?

A) adheres to collagen beneath endotheliumB) helper cells are one typeC) hormone that regulates white blood cell formationD) kills bacteria using hydrogen peroxideE) often elevated in allergic individuals

A hormone that stimulates production of granulocytes and monocytes is

A) M-CSF.B) G-CSF.C) GM-CSF.D) multi-CSF.E) thymosin.

The process of fibrinolysis

A) activates fibrinogen.B) draws torn edges of damaged tissue closer together.C) dissolves clots.D) forms emboli.E) forms thrombi.

The term used to describe fluid collecting in the pericardial cavity that restricts the movement of the heart is known as

A) cardiac tamponade.B) mitral valve prolapse.C) pleural effusion.D) cardiomyopathy.E) pericarditis.

The structure that permits blood flow from the right atrium to the left atrium in the fetal circulation is the

A) foramen ovale.B) interatrial septum.C) coronary sinus.D) fossa ovalis.E) ligamentum arteriosus.

Blood leaves the right ventricle by passing through the

A) aortic valve.B) pulmonary valve.C) mitral valve.D) tricuspid valve.E) bicuspid valve.

In the middle of the thoracic cavity is a region occupied by the heart, great vessels, thymus, esophagus, and trachea called the

A) pleural space.B) pericardial space.C) mediastinum.D) cardiac notch.E) ventral cavity.

Contractions of the papillary muscles

A) close the atrioventricular valves.B) close the semilunar valves.C) eject blood from the ventricles.D) prevent the atrioventricular valves from reversing into the atria.E) eject blood from the atria into the ventricles.

The right atrium receives blood from all of the following structures except the

A) coronary sinus.B) superior vena cava.C) inferior vena cava.D) systemic circuit.E) pulmonary veins.

When a blood clot forms on a ruptured plaque in a coronary artery, the condition is referred to as a(n)

A) coronary spasm.B) myocardial infarction.C) coronary thrombosis.D) angina pectoris.E) pulmonary embolism.

Cardiac cells damaged by infarction will show all of the following except

A) a switch to anaerobic metabolism.B) release of enzymes into the circulation.C) release of troponin T and I into the circulation.D) release of CK-MB into the circulation.E) an increase in metabolic activity.

Rupture of the papillary muscles in the left ventricle may result in

A) pulmonary valve regurgitation.B) mitral valve prolapse.C) tricuspid regurgitation.D) tricuspid prolapse.E) aortic valve prolapse.

Blood is supplied to the muscular wall of the left atrium by the

A) brachiocephalic artery.B) right coronary artery.C) left coronary artery.D) phrenic arteries.E) pulmonary arteries.

The foramen ovale in the fetal heart is located in the

A) right atrium.B) left atrium.C) right ventricle.D) left ventricle.E) interatrial septum.

In cardiac muscle, the fast depolarization phase of the action potential is the result of

A) increased membrane permeability to sodium ions.B) increased membrane permeability to potassium ions.C) decreased membrane permeability to calcium ions.D) decreased membrane permeability to sodium ions.E) increased membrane permeability to chloride ions.

The long plateau phase of the cardiac muscle action potential is due to

A) movement of fewer sodium ions across the cell membrane.B) calcium channels remaining open.C) increased membrane permeability to potassium ion.D) decrease in the amount of calcium diffusing across the membrane.E) increased membrane permeability to sodium ions.

Abnormally slow depolarization of the ventricles would most change the shape of the ________ in an ECG tracing

.A) P waveB) T waveC) QRS complexD) P-R intervalE) R-T interval

If the connection between the SA node and AV node becomes blocked

,A) the ventricles will beat faster.B) the ventricles will beat more slowly.C) the ventricular beat will remain unchanged.D) cardiac output will increase.E) the atria will contract more forcefully.

The P wave of the electrocardiogram is a signal from

A) the SA node.B) depolarization of the AV node.C) depolarization of the atria.D) repolarization of the atria.E) depolarization of the ventricles.

Analysis of the electrocardiogram can reveal all of the following except

A) heart rate.B) stroke volume.C) the condition of the conducting system.D) the effects of drugs and poisons.E) the duration of the ventricular action potential.

________ is to slow heart rate as ________ is to fast heart rate

.A) Tachycardia; bradycardiaB) Bradycardia; cardiomyopathyC) Bradycardia; tachycardiaD) Cardiac tamponade; bradycardiaE) Angina; infarction

Which of the following statements is true regarding cardiac muscle?

A) Its main source of ATP production is glycogen.B) The actin and myosin myofilaments are not arranged in sarcomeres.C) Cardiac muscle preferentially metabolizes anaerobically.D) There are specialized gap junctions in cardiac muscle not found in skeletal or smooth muscles.E) Cardiac muscle goes into sustained contractions faster than skeletal muscle.

The first heart sound ("lubb") is associated with

A) atrial systole.B) closing of the atrioventricular valves.C) opening of the atrioventricular valves.D) closing of the semilunar valves.E) opening of the semilunar valves.

During ventricular systole, the

A) atria are contracting.B) blood is entering the ventricles.C) AV valves are closed.D) pressure in the ventricles remains constant.E) pressure in the aorta remains constant.

An increase in the rate of action potentials from baroreceptors will trigger a reflex to

A) increase heart rate.B) decrease heart rate.C) decrease blood pressure.D) both decrease heart rate and decrease pressure.E) both increase heart rate and increase pressure.

Each of the following factors will increase cardiac output except increased

A) venous return.B) parasympathetic stimulation.C) sympathetic stimulation.D) heart rate.E) force of contraction.

Heart rate is controlled by neurons of the cardiovascular center located in the

A) pons.B) thalamus C) medulla oblonga.D) hypothalamus.E) higher centers.

If the force of ventricular contraction increases, what will happen to the end-systolic volume?

A) increaseB) fluctuate rapidlyC) remain the sameD) decreaseE) reduced to zero

The muscular layer in the wall of a blood vessel is the tunica

interna.

intima.

adventitia.

media.

externa.

Capillaries that have a complete lining are called

sinusoidal capillaries.

continuous capillaries.

sinusoids.

vasa vasorum.

fenestrated capillaries.

Anti-angiogenic drugs are being used to decrease tumor growth. These drugs work by decreasing

vascular flow.

new blood vessel formation.

cell communication.

focal calcification.

cell division.

Blood colloid osmotic pressure (BCOP) decreases in starving children because

This statement is false; BCOP actually increases in starving children.

starvation increases the permeability of capillaries causing a decrease in BCOP.

starvation prevents the liver from producing enough protein to maintain BCOP.

malnourished children do not exercise, which results in a decrease in BCOP.

starvation increases blood pressure which, in turn, decreases BCOP.

During hemorrhaging, the drop in capillary hydrostatic pressure will ________ NFP, thus ________ reabsorption.

increase; increasing

stabilize; reducing

increase; reducing

decrease; increasing

decrease; reducing

When a person rises quickly from a sitting position, all of the following reactions will occur except

venous return is decreased.

cardiac output will decrease.

the carotid baroreceptors become less active.

heart rate is reflexively elevated.

reflex vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels occurs.

Vickie has a tumor that secretes excess amounts of the hormone aldosterone. Because of the elevated level of hormone, she exhibits

both an increase in blood pressure and an increase in stored sodium ions.

increased blood pressure.

increased body stores of sodium ions.

polycythemia.

decreased blood volume.

Which of the following conditions is least likely to lead to renin release?

increased sympathetic activity

hypertension

circulatory shock

vasospasm of the renal arteries

renal artery thrombus

You would expect to find fenestrated capillaries in

bone.

cardiac muscle.

skeletal muscles.

skin.

the pituitary gland.

What structure do RBCs move through single-file?

capillary

vein

venule

artery

arteriole

What vessels contain elastic fibers in the walls that are stretched during systole?

venules

capillaries

arteries

veins

arterioles

Arteriosclerosis can lead to all of the following except

coronary artery disease.

stroke.

diabetes.

hypertension.

myocardial infarction.

Which part of the vascular system functions as a blood reservoir and contains over 60% of the body's blood?

capillaries

pulmonary arteries

systemic arterioles

arteries

veins

What is the correct order for the sequence of blood vessels that blood would travel in the systemic circuit, starting at the aorta?

1. venules

2. arterioles

3. capillaries

4. elastic arteries

5. medium veins

6. large veins

7. muscular arteries

7, 4, 2, 3, 1, 5, 6

2, 7, 6, 3, 1, 5, 6

6, 5, 1, 3, 2, 7, 4

5, 6, 1, 3, 2, 7, 4

4, 7, 2, 3, 1, 5, 6

The main control of peripheral resistance occurs in the

capillaries.

arteries.

arterioles.

venules.

veins.

What is the difference between elastic arteries and muscular arteries?

Elastic arteries have more smooth muscle than muscular arteries.

Elastic arteries have elastic fibers throughout the tunica media whereas muscular arteries have few elastic fibers in the tunica media.

Elastic arteries have a larger tunica intima and tunica media compared to muscular arteries.

Elastic arteries are closest to the arterioles and muscular arteries are farther away.

Muscular arteries have larger lumens than elastic arteries.

What is the primary reason cardiovascular disease affects older women and not younger women?

Older women are less likely to see a doctor.

Older women lack estrogen.

Older women lack growth hormone.

Older women are less likely to smoke.

Older women are more likely to have osteoporosis.

In the bone marrow, new blood cells must enter the circulation through

fenestrated capillaries.

arterioles.

continuous capillaries.

venules.

sinusoidal capillaries.

Blood flow to a tissue will increase if the

level of carbon dioxide at the tissue decreases.

arterioles constrict.

arterioles dilate.

level of oxygen at the tissue increases.

veins constrict.

Averaged over a few heartbeats, venous return is ________ cardiac output.

much higher than

somewhat lower than

much lower than

somewhat higher than

equal to

If blood pressure doubled, the blood flow through a vessel would be

1/4 as much.

unchanged.

halved.

doubled.

four times greater.

Each of the following factors would increase peripheral resistance except

elevated levels of epinephrine.

elevated hematocrit.

irregularities in the vessel walls caused by plaques.

increased sympathetic stimulation.

vasodilation.

If a person has a blood pressure of 120/90, his mean arterial pressure would be ________ mm Hg.

93

210

90

105

100

Which of the following statements is false concerning the movement of fluid between capillaries and interstitial space?

The hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid is largely unimportant in determining fluid movement.

The net filtration pressure is usually zero.

The osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid is less than the blood osmotic pressure.

Blood osmotic pressure moves fluid from the interstitial space to the capillary.

Blood hydrostatic pressure forces fluid from the capillary to the interstitial space.

In comparison to a vessel with a large diameter, a vessel with a small diameter has

a greater resistance to blood flow.

a higher blood pressure.

a greater blood flow.

less resistance to blood flow.

the same amount of pressure as resistance.

Which of the following equations shows the correct relation between blood flow (F), pressure (P), and resistance (R)?

F = R/P

P = (F × R) × 4

F = P - R

F = P + R

F = P/R

As blood circulates from arteries into capillaries, the total cross-sectional area of capillaries

increases and causes the blood velocity to decrease.

decreases and causes the blood velocity to increase.

is the same as the total cross-sectional area of arteries and blood velocity is equal between arteries and capillaries.

decreases and causes the blood velocity to decrease.

increases and causes the blood velocity to increase.

Which of the following is normally the greatest source acting against blood flow?

vascular resistance

turbulence

viscosity of blood

venous pressure

vessel length

The force that moves fluid out of capillaries is ________ pressure whereas the opposing force that moves fluid into capillaries is ________ pressure.

systolic; diastolic

blood; interstitial

plasma; extracellular

colloid osmotic; hydrostatic

hydrostatic; colloid osmotic

Calculate the net filtration pressure (NFP) with a blood hydrostatic pressure of 40 mm Hg and a blood colloid osmotic pressure of 25 mm Hg. Then determine if filtration or reabsorption occurs.

NFP = ________ and results in a fluid ________.

-15 mm Hg; filtration

15 mm Hg; filtration

15 mm Hg; reabsorption

65 mm Hg; reabsorption

65 mm Hg; filtration

Edema may occur when

the plasma concentration of protein is reduced.

the plasma concentration of protein is reduced and capillary endothelium permeability goes up.

the plasma concentration of protein is reduced, capillary hydrostatic pressure is elevated, and the capillary endothelium permeability goes up.

capillary endothelium permeability goes up.

capillary hydrostatic pressure is elevated.