Chapter 23 The Respiratory System Flashcards

1) The nasal cavity, pharynx, and larynx constitute the ________ portion of the airway.
A) conducting
B) exchange
C) respiratory
D) sinus
E) primary

2) The respiratory epithelium of the conducting airways consists of
A) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.
B) moist cuboidal epithelium.
C) simple squamous epithelium.
D) ciliated squamous epithelium.
E) stratified squamous epithelium.

3) The larynx, trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles all make up the
A) upper respiratory tract.
B) lower respiratory tract.
C) internal respiratory tract.
D) alveoli of the respiratory tract.
E) respiratory mucosa.

4) The respiratory mucosa consists of
A) epithelium and underlying layer of areolar tissue.
B) dense irregular connective and adipose tissue.
C) ciliated stratified squamous and columnar cells.
D) fibrocartilage and mucous cells.
E) dense regular connective and areolar tissue.

5) Tuberculosis results from an infection by the bacterium
A) Clostridium difficile.
B) Staphylococcus aureus.
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
D) Vancomycin-resistant streptococcus.
E) Tuberculin plumonae.

6) ________ is the most common lethal inherited disease affecting individuals of Northern
European descent.
A) MRSA
B) Congestive heart failure
C) Cystic fibrosis
D) Myasthenia gravis
E) Parkinson's disease

7) Air entering the body is filtered, warmed, and humidified by the
A) upper respiratory tract.
B) lower respiratory tract.
C) lungs.
D) alveoli.
E) bronchioles.

8) Inhaling through the nostrils is preferred over the mouth because
A) there is less resistance to air flow.
B) it combines olfaction with respiration.
C) it allows better conditioning of the inhaled air.
D) bacteria won't be inhaled from the oral cavity.
E) it dries out the mouth

9) Harry suffers from cystic fibrosis and has severe breathing difficulties. His problems result from
A) genetic mutation in cilia production.
B) laryngospasms.
C) thick secretions that are difficult to transport.
D) lack of neural control of respiration.
E) reduced mucus secretions in the trachea.

10) The entire array of protective mechanisms in the respiratory system is called the
A) respiratory immunity.
B) macrophage complex.
C) respiratory defense system.
D) acquired respiratory defense.
E) mucus escalator.

11) The beating of the cilia of the respiratory passages in the direction of the pharynx forms a(n)
A) debris filter.
B) mucus escalator.
C) respiratory rhythmicity center.
D) smooth slick surface allowing particles to slide.
E) increased surface area for gas exchange.

12) Which of these is not part of the upper respiratory system?
A) larynx
B) pharynx
C) nasal cavity
D) nose
E) sinuses

13) The respiratory portion of the respiratory tract includes the
A) bronchi.
B) trachea.
C) larynx.
D) alveoli.
E) nose.

14) An important component of the lamina propria in the upper respiratory system is
A) sweat glands.
B) ceruminous glands.
C) mucus glands.
D) serous glands.
E) smooth muscle cells.

15) The nasopharynx transitions into the oropharynx at the level of the
A) hard palate.
B) soft palate.
C) cribriform plate.
D) internal nares.
E) pharyngeal septum.

16) The ________ is shared by the respiratory and digestive systems.
A) pharynx
B) esophagus
C) trachea
D) windpipe
E) right mainstem bronchus

17) Which of the following organs is not part of the lower respiratory system?
A) pharynx
B) trachea
C) larynx
D) bronchi
E) alveoli

18) The conchae
A) divide the nasal cavity into a right and a left side.
B) provide an opening into the pharynx.
C) provide a increase in surface area for the sense of smell.
D) create turbulence in the air to trap particulate matter in mucus.
E) provide an opening to paranasal sinuses.

19) Functions of the nasal cavity include all of the following except
A) filtering the air.
B) warming the air.
C) humidifying the air.
D) housing tonsils.
E) housing olfactory receptors.

20) The openings to the nasal cavity are the
A) external nares.
B) internal nares.
C) nasal meatuses.
D) nasal conchae.
E) nasal sinuses.

21) The portion of the nasal cavity contained within the flexible tissues of the external nose is the
A) nasopharynx.
B) vestibule.
C) internal chamber.
D) conchae.
E) nasal septum.

22) The nasal cavity is separated from the oral cavity by the
A) hard palate.
B) soft palate.
C) cribriform plate.
D) internal nares.
E) pharyngeal septum.

23) The common passageway shared by the respiratory and digestive systems is the
A) larynx.
B) glottis.
C) vestibule.
D) pharynx.
E) trachea.

24) The auditory tubes open into the
A) nasopharynx.
B) oropharynx.
C) laryngopharynx.
D) larynx.
E) nasal cavity.

25) The palatine tonsils lie in the walls of the
A) nasopharynx.
B) oropharynx.
C) laryngopharynx.
D) larynx.
E) nasal cavity.

26) The ________ is lined by stratified squamous epithelium.
A) nasopharynx
B) trachea
C) oropharynx
D) larynx
E) nasal cavity

27) Physical damage to the lamina propria of the nasal mucosa is likely to result in
A) epistaxis.
B) nasal congestion.
C) nosebleeds.
D) a deviated septum.
E) epistaxis or nosebleeds.

28) Which of the following is false about the pharynx?
A) It is shared by the integumentary and respiratory systems.
B) The nasopharynx is superior.
C) The oropharynx connects to oral cavity.
D) The laryngopharynx ends at esophagus opening.
E) Solids, liquids, and gases pass through.

29) The superior region of the pharynx is called the
A) nasal cavity.
B) nasopharynx.
C) oropharynx.
D) laryngopharynx.
E) superior nasal conchae.

30) The nasal cavity opens into the nasopharynx through a connection known as the
A) oropharynx.
B) nasal meatus.
C) nasal vestibule.
D) internal nares.
E) auditory canal.

31) Which bone does not form part of the lateral or superior walls of the nasal cavity?
A) maxilla
B) mandible
C) nasal
D) ethmoid
E) sphenoid

32) Air flows between nasal conchae through the
A) dorsum nasi.
B) apex.
C) external nares.
D) nasal vestibule.
E) superior, middle, and inferior nasal meatuses.

33) Accidently sending fluid up out of the nose happens when the ________ fails to close off the
________.
A) epiglottis; larynx
B) epiglottis; nasopharynx
C) soft palate; nasopharynx
D) soft palate; larynx
E) soft palate; oropharynx

39) The larynx contains ________ cartilages.
A) 14
B) 6
C) 9
D) 2
E) 5

40) The glottis is
A) the soft tissue that hangs off the end of the soft palate.
B) a flap of elastic cartilage.
C) the opening to the larynx.
D) the opening to the pharynx.
E) part of the hard palate.

41) The vocal folds are located within the
A) nasopharynx.
B) oropharynx.
C) larynx.
D) trachea.
E) bronchi.

42) The elastic cartilage that covers the opening to the larynx during swallowing is the
A) thyroid cartilage.
B) cricoid cartilage.
C) corniculate cartilage.
D) cuneiform cartilage.
E) epiglottis.

43) The largest cartilage of the larynx is the ________ cartilage.
A) thyroid
B) cricoid
C) cuneiform
D) arytenoid
E) epiglottic

44) The ring-shaped cartilage just inferior to the thyroid cartilage is the ________ cartilage.
A) epiglottis
B) cuneiform
C) corniculate
D) cricoid
E) arytenoid

45) The paired cartilages that articulate with the superior border of the cricoid cartilage are the
________ cartilages.
A) cricothyroid
B) innominate
C) cuneiform
D) corniculate
E) arytenoid

46) A common site to place a tracheostomy tube is through the ligament that connects the cricoid
cartilage to the ________ cartilage.
A) thyroid
B) cuneiform
C) corniculate
D) epiglottic
E) vestibular

47) A pair of ligaments covered by laryngeal epithelium that function in sound production are the
A) intrinsic ligaments.
B) extrinsic ligaments.
C) ventricular folds.
D) vocal folds.
E) intrinsic laryngeal muscles.

48) Air passing through the glottis vibrates the vocal folds and produces
A) speech.
B) articulation.
C) phonation.
D) whistling.
E) ululation.

49) The laryngeal cartilage which is not composed of hyaline cartilage is the
A) arytenoid.
B) corniculate.
C) cricoid.
D) epiglottis.
E) thyroid.

50) An acute infection of the throat that can lead to swelling and closure of the glottis and cause suffocation is known as
A) laryngitis.
B) laryngospasm.
C) acute epiglottitis.
D) strep throat.
E) acute pharyngitis.

51) Contraction of the intrinsic laryngeal muscles can
A) move the cricoid cartilage.
B) close the glottis.
C) constrict the trachea.
D) move food from the larynx to the esophagus.
E) assist in breathing during exercise.

52) Tina is singing a song. At a certain point in the song, she forces a large volume of air out of the glottis and at the same time increases the tension on her vocal cords. The sound that she
produces is
A) low pitched and loud.
B) high pitched and loud.
C) low pitched and soft.
D) high pitched and soft.
E) medium pitched and soft.

53) The adult human trachea is about ________ in diameter and contains ________ tracheal
cartilages.
A) 1.0 cm; 15-20
B) 1.0 cm; 10-15
C) 2.5 cm; 15-20
D) 2.5 cm; 40-50
E) 4.5 cm; 60-80

54) During a choking episode, most foreign objects are lodged in the ________ bronchus due to its larger diameter and steeper angle.
A) right primary
B) left primary
C) right lobar
D) left lobar
E) medial

55) Which of the following statements about the trachea is false?
A) It is lined by pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.
B) Tracheal cartilages prevent tracheal collapse.
C) It contains many mucous glands.
D) It alters its diameter in response to the autonomic nervous system.
E) It is completely wrapped in smooth muscle.

56) The airway that connects the larynx to the bronchial tree is the
A) trachea.
B) bronchiole.
C) laryngopharynx.
D) alveolar duct.
E) bronchus.

57) The ________ branch from the trachea at the carina.
A) terminal bronchioles
B) lobar bronchi
C) segmental bronchi
D) primary bronchi
E) alveolar ducts

58) The C shape of the tracheal cartilages is important because
A) large masses of food can move through the esophagus.
B) large masses of air can pass through the trachea and thus the bronchi.
C) it facilitates turning of the head.
D) the bronchi are also C-shaped.
E) it permits the trachea to pinch shut prior to sneezing.

59) Primary bronchi are to ________ as secondary bronchi are to ________.
A) main bronchi; lobar bronchi
B) lobar bronchi; segmental bronchi
C) segmental bronchi; lobar bronchi
D) trachea; pharynx
E) lobar bronchi; alveolar ducts

60) Roughly ________ terminal bronchioles arise from each segmental bronchus.
A) 1,500
B) 3,000
C) 6,500
D) 10,000
E) 100,000

61) Asthma is
A) a collapsed lung resulting from insufficient production of surfactant.
B) due to an excessive stimulation of smooth muscle in bronchioles.
C) an obstructive tumor targeting primarily the terminal bronchioles.
D) characterized by fluid buildup in the alveoli.
E) caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

62) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term bronchiolar smooth muscle?
A) accessory muscle of expiration
B) accessory muscle of inspiration
C) primary muscle of inspiration
D) contraction increases airway resistance
E) affects lung compliance

63) The flap-like structure that prevents food from entering the larynx is called the
A) uvula.
B) soft palate.
C) epiglottis.
D) thyroid cartilage.
E) cricoid cartilage.

64) An elastic ________ ligament and the ________ muscle connect the ends of tracheal
cartilage.
A) tracheal; trachealis
B) anular; trachealis
C) tracheal; anular
D) cricoid; anular
E) cricoid; trachealis

65) The ligament bridging the larynx with the trachea is the ________ ligament.
A) cricoid
B) thyrohyoid
C) vestibular
D) cricothyroid
E) cricotracheal

66) The thyroid cartilage is also called the
A) vestibular fold.
B) vocal cord.
C) laryngeal prominence.
D) Adam's apple.
E) laryngeal prominence and Adam's apple.

67) Children have slender, short vocal cords so their voices tend to be
A) louder.
B) softer.
C) higher pitched.
D) lower pitched.
E) deeper toned.

68) JJ is suffering from laryngitis. He will most likely experience which of the following
symptoms?
A) coughing
B) hoarseness
C) sneezing
D) suffocation
E) impaired swallowing

69) Primary bronchi enter their respective lungs along with pulmonary vessels, nerves, and lymphatics at which region?
A) base
B) apex
C) hilum
D) cardiac notch
E) superior lobe

70) The following is a list of some airways. What is the order in which air passes through them?
1. lobar bronchus
2. bronchioles
3. alveolar ducts
4. primary bronchus
5. respiratory bronchiole
6. alveoli
7. terminal bronchiole
A) 4, 1, 2, 7, 5, 3, 6
B) 4, 1, 2, 5, 7, 3, 6
C) 1, 4, 2, 5, 7, 3, 6
D) 1, 4, 2, 7, 5, 3, 6
E) 2, 4, 1, 7, 5, 3, 6

71) The actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs are the
A) bronchioles.
B) terminal bronchioles.
C) spaces between the parietal and visceral pleura.
D) blood air barrier of the alveoli.
E) interlobular septa.

72) The blood air barrier consists of
A) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.
B) 1 layer of moist cuboidal epithelium.
C) 2 layers of simple squamous epithelium.
D) stratified squamous epithelium.
E) surfactant cells.

73) Respiratory function deteriorates as a result of pneumonia because inflammation
A) causes fluids to leak into the alveoli.
B) causes respiratory bronchioles to swell and dilate.
C) causes the lungs to leak air into the thorax.
D) reduces movement of the epiglottis.
E) reduces the size of the pleural cavity.

74) Surfactant is produced by what cell type in the alveolus?
A) smooth muscle cells
B) pneumocytes Type I
C) pneumocytes Type II
D) pneumocytes Type I and Type II
E) alveolar macrophages

75) The condition resulting from inadequate production of surfactant and the resultant collapse of alveoli is
A) respiratory distress syndrome.
B) COPD.
C) anoxia.
D) pulmonary embolism.
E) pneumothorax.

76) The interlobular septa divide the lungs into
A) lobes.
B) pulmonary lobules.
C) alveolar sacs.
D) vital capacity and residual volume.
E) visceral pleura and fibrous trabeculae.

77) The right lung is to ________ as the left lung is to ________.
A) three lobes; two lobes
B) two lobes; two lobes
C) two lobes; three lobes
D) three lobes; three lobes
E) four lobes; three lobes

78) The most superior portion of the lung is called the
A) base.
B) apex.
C) cardiac notch.
D) hilus.
E) epipleurium.

79) A patient with a connective tissue disease experiences increased pulmonary vascular resistance. Over a period of time, you would expect to observe
A) increased cardiac output from the right ventricle.
B) increased cardiac output from the left ventricle.
C) increased thickness of the right ventricular wall.
D) distension of the pulmonary veins from the right lung.
E) no appreciable changes in heart structure or function.

80) The resulting pain and inflammation when pleural fluid is unable to prevent friction between the opposing pleural surfaces is known as
A) pleurisy.
B) pulmonary hypertension.
C) asthma.
D) emphysema.
E) COPD.

81) Blockage of pulmonary blood flow by a traveling clot or similar obstruction is
A) emphysema.
B) COPD.
C) anoxia.
D) pulmonary embolism.
E) pneumothorax.

82) Which respiratory organ has a cardiac notch?
A) right lung
B) left lung
C) right primary bronchus
D) left primary bronchus
E) diaphragm

83) The ________ fissure separates the lobes of the left lung.
A) lateral
B) longitudinal
C) medial
D) left horizontal
E) oblique

84) A unique feature of the left lung is the
A) hilum.
B) carina.
C) primary bronchus.
D) cardiac notch.
E) apex.

85) The serous membrane that covers the lungs is the
A) visceral pleura.
B) parietal pleura.
C) visceral pericardium.
D) parietal pericardium.
E) visceral peritoneum.

86) Lung tissue receives oxygen and nutrients from the
A) pleural arteries.
B) pulmonary arteries.
C) pulmonary veins.
D) coronary arteries.
E) bronchial arteries.

87) The process by which dissolved gases are exchanged between the cells and interstitial fluids is
A) pulmonary ventilation.
B) external respiration.
C) internal respiration.
D) cellular respiration.
E) breathing.

88) External respiration involves the
A) movement of air into and out of the lungs.
B) diffusion of gases between the interstitial fluid and the external environment.
C) exchange of dissolved gases between the cells and interstitial fluids.
D) binding of oxygen by hemoglobin.
E) utilization of oxygen by tissues to support metabolism.

89) In which direction does carbon dioxide move during internal respiration?
A) from the blood into the tissue cells
B) from the blood into the lungs
C) from the lungs into the atmosphere
D) from the tissue cells into the blood
E) from the lungs into the blood

90) Low partial pressure of oxygen in tissues is a condition called
A) asthma.
B) emphysema.
C) hypoxia.
D) ischemia.
E) lung cancer.

91) The physical movement of air into and out of lungs is termed
A) external respiration.
B) internal respiration.
C) cellular respiration.
D) pulmonary ventilation.
E) gas diffusion.

92) The most common unit of measurement for measuring pulmonary pressures is
A) mm Hg.
B) torr.
C) cm H2O.
D) psi.
E) centigrade.

93) When there is no air movement, the relationship between the intrapulmonary and
atmospheric pressure is that
A) they are equal.
B) intrapulmonary pressure is greater than atmospheric.
C) atmospheric pressure is less than intrapulmonary.
D) atmospheric pressure is more than intrapulmonary.
E) intrapulmonary pressure is less than atmospheric.

94) Boyle's law states that the pressure of a gas is
A) inversely proportional to the volume of its container.
B) always higher in the atmosphere than in the lungs.
C) directly proportional to temperature.
D) inversely proportional to temperature.
E) directly proportional to the volume of its container.

95) Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is
A) greater than intraalveolar pressure.
B) less than the pressure in the atmosphere.
C) less than intrapulmonic pressure.
D) equal to the pressure in the atmosphere.
E) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere.

96) During quiet breathing,
A) only the internal intercostal muscles contract.
B) inspiration involves muscular contractions and expiration is passive.
C) inspiration is passive and expiration involves muscular contractions.
D) both inspiration and expiration are passive.
E) both inspiration and expiration involve muscular contractions.

97) What is one atmosphere of pressure?
A) 760 mm Hg
B) 1000 mm Hg
C) 105 mm Hg
D) 45 mm Hg
E) 650 mm Hg

98) If the volume of the lungs increases, what happens to the air pressure inside the lungs?
A) It decreases.
B) It increases and possibly damages the lungs.
C) It increases twice the amount of the increase in volume.
D) It remains constant.

99) What occurs if intrapulmonic pressure is 763 mm Hg?
A) hyperventilation
B) exhalation
C) pause in breathing
D) apnea
E) inhalation

100) During exercise, which of the following contract for active exhalation?
A) rectus abdominis and internal intercostal muscles
B) diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles
C) rectus abdominis and diaphragm muscles
D) diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
E) pectoralis major and serratus anterior muscles

101) The term ________ describes the result from an injury that permits air to leak into the
intrapleural space.
A) pleurisy
B) pneumonia
C) pneumothorax
D) pulmonary edema
E) emphysema

102) Quiet breathing is to ________ as shallow breathing is to ________.
A) eupnea; diaphragmatic breathing
B) eupnea; costal breathing
C) costal breathing; eupnea
D) costal breathing; diaphragmatic
E) diaphragmatic breathing; eupnea

103) ________ involves active inspiratory and expiratory movements and calls on accessory muscles to assist with inhalation, while exhalation involves contraction of the internal intercostal muscles and sometimes abdominal muscles, too.
A) Eupnea
B) Forced breathing
C) Costal breathing
D) Vital breathing
E) Passive breathing

104) ________ is the amount of air that moves into the respiratory system during a single
respiratory cycle.
A) Residual volume
B) Expiratory reserve volume
C) Inspiratory reserve volume
D) Tidal volume
E) Inspiratory capacity

105) ________ is the amount of air that you can inhale above the resting tidal volume.
A) Residual inhaled volume
B) Expiratory reserve volume
C) Inspiratory reserve volume
D) Enhanced tidal volume
E) Inspiratory capacity

106) Expiratory movements are produced by contraction of the ________ muscle.
A) scalene
B) diaphragm
C) internal intercostal
D) external intercostal
E) serratus anterior

107) When the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract,
A) the volume of the thorax increases.
B) the volume of the thorax decreases.
C) the volume of the lungs decreases.
D) the lungs shrink.
E) expiration occurs.

108) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term external intercostal?
A) accessory muscle of expiration
B) accessory muscle of inspiration
C) primary muscle of inspiration
D) primary muscle of expiration
E) an accessory muscle for both expiration and inspiration

109) Increasing the alveolar ventilation rate will
A) decrease the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli.
B) decrease the rate of oxygen diffusion from the alveoli to the blood.
C) increase the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli.
D) decrease the rate of carbon dioxide diffusion from the blood to the alveoli.
E) hardly affect either the partial pressure or diffusion of gases.

110) Alveolar ventilation refers to the
A) movement of air into and out of the lungs.
B) movement of air into and out of the alveoli.
C) movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood.
D) movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the alveoli.
E) utilization of oxygen by alveolar cells to support metabolism.

111) The function of pulmonary ventilation is to
A) remove carbon dioxide from the blood.
B) supply oxygen to the blood.
C) maintain adequate alveolar ventilation.
D) remove air from dead air space.
E) prevent gas exchange in the bronchioles.

112) If a patient inhales as deeply as possible and then exhales as much as possible, the volume of air expelled would be the patient's
A) tidal volume.
B) inspiratory reserve volume.
C) expiratory reserve volume.
D) reserve volume.
E) vital capacity.

113) ________ = respiratory rate × (tidal volume - anatomic dead space)
A) Vital capacity
B) Respiratory minute volume
C) Pulmonary ventilation rate
D) Alveolar ventilation rate
E) External respiration rate

114) Boyle's law of gases states that
A) the pressure and volume of a gas are equal.
B) as the temperature goes up, the pressure goes up.
C) the total gas pressure is equal to the sum of the partial pressures.
D) the concentration of dissolved gas is proportional to its partial pressure.
E) if the volume goes up, the pressure goes down.

115) As an astronaut is lifted into Earth's orbit, what is the first change to take place in response to the drop in cabin pressure?
A) increased hematocrit
B) renal hypoxia
C) increased alveolar ventilation rate
D) decreased alveolar PO2
E) decreased hemoglobin saturation

116) While playing in an intramural football game, Joe is tackled so hard that he breaks a rib. He can actually feel a piece of the rib sticking through the skin and he is having a difficult time breathing. Joe is probably suffering from
A) a collapsed trachea.
B) an obstruction in the bronchi.
C) a pneumothorax.
D) decreased surfactant production.
E) a bruised diaphragm.

117) Which of the following can be calculated if the tidal volume and respiratory rate are known?
A) respiratory minute volume
B) inspiratory reserve volume
C) expiratory reserve volume
D) anatomical dead space
E) forced vital capacity

118) When the inspiratory muscles relax, the rib cage returns to its original position as a result of
A) exhalation.
B) gravity.
C) elastic rebound.
D) accessory muscle contraction.
E) partial pressure difference.

119) The ________ of the lungs is an indication of their expandability, how easily the lungs expand and contract.
A) compliance
B) ventilation
C) volume
D) intrapulmonary pressure
E) cellular respiration

120) Use of the accessory respiratory muscles is characteristic of forced breathing, or
A) hyperpnea.
B) eupnea.
C) dyspnea.
D) hypoxia.
E) apnea.

121) The normal respiratory rate of a resting adult ranges from ________ breaths each minute, or
roughly one for every four heartbeats.
A) 6-10
B) 8-14
C) 10-15
D) 12-18
E) 18-22

122) During inhalation, air continues to move into the lungs until
A) the internal pressure is the same is atmospheric pressure.
B) the internal pressure is less than atmospheric pressure.
C) the internal pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure.
D) the compliance of the lung decreases.
E) the lungs recoil.

123) A condition that increases lung compliance is
A) lung cancer.
B) respiratory distress syndrome.
C) loss of surfactant.
D) emphysema.
E) pneumothorax.

124) A pneumothorax typically causes
A) COPD.
B) emphysema.
C) atelectasis.
D) loss of surfactant.
E) elevated intrapulmonary pressure.

125) A typical respiratory minute volume is
A) 1 liter.
B) 2 liters.
C) 500 mL.
D) 6 liters.
E) 10 liters.

126) Air that remains in conducting passages and doesn't participate in gas exchange is termed
A) vital capacity.
B) minimal volume.
C) residual volume.
D) functional residual capacity.
E) anatomic dead space.

127) Lungs are held tightly to the wall of the thorax due to
A) the diaphragm and intercostal muscle contractions.
B) tight junctions between the lungs and the thorax.
C) surface tension of the pleural fluid and negative pressure in the cavity.
D) atmospheric pressure pushing on the lungs.
E) pulmonary ligaments that anchor the lungs.

128) Which pressure remains negative throughout the respiratory cycle?
A) intrapulmonary
B) intrapleural
C) intra-alveolar
D) atmospheric
E) intrapulmonary and intra-alveolar

135) Henry's law states that
A) gas volume and temperature are directly proportional.
B) gas volume and pressure are inversely proportional.
C) the volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the solubility of the gas and the gas pressure.
D) in a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in the mixture.
E) gas pressure is inversely proportional to gas volume.

136) Dalton's law states that
A) gas volume and temperature are directly proportional.
B) gas volume and pressure are inversely proportional.
C) the volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the solubility of the gas and the gas pressure.
D) in a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in the mixture.
E) gas pressure is inversely proportional to gas volume.

137) The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood is approximately
A) 40 mm Hg.
B) 45 mm Hg.
C) 50 mm Hg.
D) 70 mm Hg.
E) 100 mm Hg.

138) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in venous blood is approximately
A) 40 mm Hg.
B) 45 mm Hg.
C) 50 mm Hg.
D) 70 mm Hg.
E) 100 mm Hg.

139) The partial pressure of oxygen in the interstitial space of peripheral tissues is approximately
A) 40 mm Hg.
B) 45 mm Hg.
C) 50 mm Hg.
D) 70 mm Hg.
E) 100 mm Hg.

140) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the interstitial space of peripheral tissues is
approximately
A) 35 mm Hg.
B) 45 mm Hg.
C) 55 mm Hg.
D) 70 mm Hg.
E) 100 mm Hg.

141) Each of the following factors affects the rate of external respiration except the
A) PO2 of the alveoli.
B) PCO2 of the blood.
C) thickness of the respiratory membrane.
D) PN2 of the alveoli.
E) solubility of oxygen in plasma.

142) The partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air at sea level is
A) greater than the partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air at the top of Mt. Everest.
B) less than the partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air at the top of Mt. Everest.
C) equal to the partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air at the top of Mt. Everest.
D) equal to the sum of partial pressures from carbon dioxide and nitrogen.
E) equal to the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in atmospheric air at the top of Mt. Everest.

143) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide is greatest in
A) venous blood.
B) alveolar air.
C) expired air.
D) inspired air.
E) arterial blood.

144) A SCUBA diver has been deep underwater and suddenly rises to the surface too fast. Why does the diver get decompression sickness?
A) Pressure decreases and carbon dioxide rushes into cells.
B) Pressure changes too fast and the carbon dioxide in the blood forms bubbles.
C) Pressure decreases too fast and nitrogen gas in the blood forms bubbles.
D) The gas in the SCUBA tank had too much pressure and rapid ascent forces too much air into the blood.
E) Pressure increases too fast and too much oxygen enters the blood and forms bubbles.

145) Which is not a reason gas exchange is efficient at the blood air barrier?
A) Partial pressure differences are substantial.
B) Distance is short.
C) Surface area is large.
D) Gap junctions facilitate fast movement.
E) Gases are lipid soluble.

146) Total alveolar surface area is reduced in
A) lung cancer.
B) atelectasis.
C) emphysema.
D) pneumothorax.
E) asthma.

147) Which of the following decreases respiratory efficiency?
A) decreased blood flow
B) increased surface area
C) increased partial pressure gradients
D) increased gas solubility
E) decreased diffusion distance

148) The chloride shift occurs in order to
A) force oxygen out of the blood and into tissues.
B) transport bicarbonate ions into the blood plasma.
C) produce salt for the cytosol of blood cells.
D) produce carbonic acid.
E) pump hydrochloric acid out of gastric cells.

149) Carbon dioxide and water combine to form
A) hydrochloric acid.
B) oxygen.
C) carbonic acid.
D) carbaminohemoglobin.
E) nitric acid.

150) When does oxyhemoglobin form during respiration?
A) during external respiration
B) immediately after carbon dioxide enters the blood
C) when the chloride shift occurs
D) during pulmonary ventilation
E) during internal respiration

151) At a PO2 of 70 mm Hg and normal temperature and pH, hemoglobin is ________ percent saturated with oxygen.
A) 10
B) 25
C) 50
D) 75
E) more than 90

152) Most of the oxygen transported by the blood is
A) dissolved in plasma.
B) bound to hemoglobin.
C) in ionic form as solute in the plasma.
D) bound to the same protein as carbon dioxide.
E) carried by white blood cells.

153) Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is transported as
A) solute dissolved in the plasma.
B) carbaminohemoglobin.
C) bicarbonate ions.
D) solute dissolved in the cytoplasm of red blood cells.
E) carbonic acid.

154) Which of the following factors would increase the amount of oxygen discharged by hemoglobin to peripheral tissues?
A) decreased temperature
B) decreased pH
C) increased tissue PO2
D) decreased amounts of BPG
E) decreased temperature and decreased amounts of BPG

155) Each 100 ml of blood leaving the alveolar capillaries carries away roughly ________ ml of
oxygen.
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 50
E) 75

156) Under quiet conditions, blood returning to the heart retains about ________ of its oxygen content.
A) 25 percent
B) 50 percent
C) 75 percent
D) 90 percent
E) 100 percent

157) For maximum loading of hemoglobin with oxygen at the lungs, the
A) PCO2 should be high.
B) pH should be slightly acidic.
C) PO2 should be about 70 mm Hg.
D) BPG levels in the red blood cells should be high.
E) PO2 should be as high as possible.

158) Which of the following statements about the chloride shift is false?
A) It involves a movement of chloride ion into RBCs.
B) It depends on the chloride-bicarbonate countertransporter.
C) It involves a movement of bicarbonate ions into the plasma.
D) It is driven by a rise in PCO2.
E) It causes RBCs to swell.

159) The percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 38 degrees centigrade is
A) greater than the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 43 degrees centigrade.
B) less than the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 43 degrees centigrade.
C) equal to the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 43 degrees centigrade.
D) equal to the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 20 degrees centigrade.
E) equal to the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when BPG levels are high.

160) Low pH alters hemoglobin structure so that oxygen binds less strongly to hemoglobin at low PO2. This increases the effectiveness of
A) external respiration.
B) internal respiration.
C) carbon dioxide transport.
D) hemoglobin synthesis.
E) acid-base balance.

161) Hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is high is
A) greater than hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is low.
B) less than hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is low.
C) equal to hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is low.
D) equal to hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when pH is low.
E) equal to hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when pH is high.

162) Which of these factors does not affect hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen?
A) RBC metabolic activity
B) temperature
C) electrolyte balance
D) the PO2 of blood
E) blood pH

163) Factors affecting the release of oxygen from hemoglobin can be visualized by using a
A) spirograph.
B) pulmonary volume chart.
C) respiratory cycle chart.
D) oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve.
E) blood gas analysis.

164) If PO2 increases
A) saturation goes down and hemoglobin gives away oxygen.
B) hemoglobin stores oxygen.
C) hemoglobin gives away oxygen.
D) saturation goes up.
E) saturation goes up and hemoglobin stores oxygen.

165) The effect of pH on hemoglobin saturation is known as the
A) Bainbridge reflex.
B) Bohr effect.
C) pulmonary reflex.
D) respiratory effect.
E) Hering-Breuer reflex.

166) The most important chemical regulator of respiration is
A) oxygen.
B) carbon dioxide.
C) bicarbonate ion.
D) sodium ion.
E) hemoglobin.

167) A 10 percent increase in the level of carbon dioxide in the blood will
A) decrease the rate of breathing.
B) double the respiratory rate.
C) decrease pulmonary ventilation.
D) decrease the alveolar ventilation rate.
E) decrease the vital capacity.

168) The term hypercapnia refers to
A) the cessation of breathing.
B) elevated PCO2.
C) elevated PO2.
D) an increase in pH.
E) labored breathing.

169) The apneustic centers of the pons
A) inhibit the pneumotaxic and inspiratory centers.
B) provide stimulation to the inspiratory center.
C) monitor blood gas levels.
D) alter chemoreceptor sensitivity.
E) generate the gasp reflex.

170) All of the following provide chemoreceptor input to the respiratory centers of the medulla oblongata except the
A) olfactory epithelium.
B) medullary chemoreceptors.
C) aortic body.
D) carotid body.
E) central chemoreceptors.

171) The normal rate and depth of breathing is established by the ________ center(s).
A) apneustic
B) pneumotaxic
C) DRG and VRG
D) expiratory
E) ventral respiratory

172) Prolonged inspirations can result from stimulating the ________ center.
A) apneustic
B) pneumotaxic
C) expiratory
D) baroreceptor
E) chemoreceptor

173) The pneumotaxic center of the pons
A) sets the at-rest respiratory pattern.
B) prolongs inspiration.
C) modifies the rate and depth of breathing.
D) suppresses the expiratory center in the medulla.
E) stimulates the dorsal respiratory group.

174) Higher brain centers that alter the activity of the respiratory centers include all of the following except
A) cortical association areas.
B) the precentral motor gyrus.
C) the limbic system.
D) the hypothalamus.
E) Broca's center.

175) The Hering-Breuer reflex
A) functions to increase ventilation with changes in blood pressure.
B) alters pulmonary ventilation when the PO2 changes.
C) alters pulmonary ventilation when the PCO2 changes.
D) protects the lungs from damage due to overinflation.
E) is an important aspect of normal, quiet breathing.

176) Blocking afferent action potentials from the chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies would interfere with the brain's ability to regulate breathing in response to
A) changes in PCO2.
B) changes in PO2.
C) changes in pH.
D) changes in blood pressure.
E) changes in PCO2, PO2, and pH.

177) Damage to the phrenic nerves would
A) increase respiratory rate.
B) increase the tidal volume.
C) force reliance on costal breathing.
D) result in greater pressure differences between the lungs and the outside air.
E) have little effect on ventilation.

178) Stimulation of the apneustic center would result in
A) increased respiratory rate.
B) more intense inhalation.
C) a shorter respiratory cycle.
D) less activity in the DRG center.
E) decreased vital capacity.

179) If the dorsal respiratory group of neurons in the medulla oblongata were destroyed bilaterally,
A) a person would stop breathing.
B) pulmonary ventilation would increase markedly.
C) the respiratory minute volume would increase.
D) tidal volumes would decrease.
E) alveolar ventilation would increase.

180) Severing the sensory fibers from the lungs would result in all of the following except
A) less inhibition of the inspiratory center during forced breathing.
B) a drop in tidal volume.
C) potential damage to the lungs due to overinflation.
D) a disappearance of the Hering-Breuer reflexes.
E) less stimulation of the expiratory center during forced breathing.

181) Which of the following is not a true statement?
A) The DRG primarily controls inspiration.
B) The VRG primarily controls expiration.
C) The DRG functions in forced breathing only.
D) The VRG functions in forced breathing only.
E) The DRG controls external intercostals and the diaphragm.

182) The ________ inhibit the apneustic centers and promote passive or active exhalation.
A) DRG
B) VRG
C) pheumotaxic centers
D) LRG
E) inspiratory centers

183) Information from chemoreceptors travels to the brain via the ________ nerves.
A) trigeminal
B) hypoglossal
C) vagus
D) glossopharyngeal
E) vagus and glossopharyngeal

184) The leading cause of death for children under 1 year of age is
A) motor vehicle accidents.
B) falls.
C) cardiac congenital malformations.
D) sudden infant death syndrome.
E) asthma.

185) Which of the following age-based changes is false?
A) The lungs lose elastic tissue.
B) The lung's compliance changes.
C) Vital capacity increases.
D) Respiratory muscles weaken.
E) Costal cartilages become more flexible.

186) The obstructive lung disease in which connective tissues are lost, alveolar surfaces are damaged, and the respiratory surface is reduced is called
A) asthma.
B) bronchitis.
C) emphysema.
D) tuberculosis.
E) pneumonia.

187) Which of the following are not present prior to birth?
A) Pulmonary arterial resistance is high.
B) Pulmonary vessels are collapsed.
C) Rib cage is compressed.
D) Alveoli are expanded.
E) Lungs and airways contain only a small amount of fluid.

188) Which of the following changes does not occur at birth when an infant takes his or her first breaths?
A) Blood flow to the lungs decreases.
B) The resistance in the pulmonary arteries decreases.
C) Changes in blood flow cause the foramen ovale to close.
D) Air enters the alveoli.
E) Gas diffuses across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

189) One way to improve respiratory performance with age is to
A) eat smaller meals.
B) stop smoking.
C) sleep longer.
D) maintain normal glucose levels.
E) produce less surfactant.

1) What type of epithelium lines the conducting portion of the respiratory tract?
A) simple squamous epithelium
B) simple columnar epithelium
C) stratified ciliated columnar epithelium
D) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
E) stratified squamous epithelium

2) What type of muscle wraps around a respiratory bronchiole and can change the diameter of the airway?
A) skeletal muscle
B) smooth muscle
C) cardiac muscle
D) voluntary muscle
E) respiratory muscle

3) How many lobes does each lung have, and which lung has a cardiac notch?
A) right lung has 2 lobes, the left lung has 3 lobes; the right lung has a cardiac notch
B) right lung has 3 lobes, the left lung has 2 lobes; the right lung has a cardiac notch
C) right lung has 2 lobes, the left lung has 3 lobes; the left lung has a cardiac notch
D) right lung has 3 lobes, the left lung has 2 lobes; the left lung has a cardiac notch
E) both lungs have 3 lobes, the left lung has a cardiac notch

4) Name the primary muscles of inspiration.
A) internal intercostal muscles and external intercostal muscles
B) diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles
C) diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
D) rectus abdominis and transversus thoracis
E) serratus anterior and rectus abdominus

5) The inspiratory capacity is a total of what two pulmonary volumes?
A) tidal volume and inspiratory reserve volume
B) vital capacity and tidal volume
C) vital capacity and inspiratory reserve volume
D) residual volume and tidal volume
E) inspiratory reserve volume and functional residual capacity

6) According to these graphs, more oxygen is released when the pH is (higher or lower) than normal and when temperature is (higher or lower) than normal.
A) higher; higher
B) lower; lower
C) higher; lower
D) lower; higher

7) Inhibition of medulla oblongata chemoreceptors and respiratory muscles has what effect on respiratory rate, elimination of CO2 at alveoli, and arterial PCO2?
A) increased respiratory rate, increased elimination of CO2 at alveoli, and increased arterial PCO2
B) increased respiratory rate, decreased elimination of CO2 at alveoli, and decreased arterial PCO2
C) increased respiratory rate, increased elimination of CO2 at alveoli, and decreased arterial PCO2
D) decreased respiratory rate, increased elimination of CO2 at alveoli, and increased arterial PCO2
E) decreased respiratory rate, decreased elimination of CO2 at alveoli, and increased arterial PCO2