The RN is assessing a 70-year-old client admitted to the unit with
severe dehydration. Which finding requires immediate intervention by
the nurse?
Client behavior that changes from anxious to
lethargic
Deep furrows on the surface of the tongue
Poor skin turgor with tenting remaining for 2 minutes after the
skin is pinched
Urine output of 950 mL for the past 24 hours
Client behavior that changes from anxious to lethargic
**Immediate intervention by the nurse is required when a
client's behavior changes from anxious to lethargic. This change in
mental status suggests poor cerebral blood flow and fluid shifts
within the brain cells. Immediate intervention is needed to prevent
further cerebral dysfunction.Deep furrows on the surface of the
tongue, poor skin turgor, and low urine output are all caused by the
fluid volume deficit, but do not indicate complications of dehydration
that are immediately life-threatening.
A client with diarrhea for 3 days and inability to eat or drink well
is brought to the emergency department (ED) by her family. She states
she has been taking her diuretics for congestive heart failure (CHF).
What nursing actions are indicated at this time?
Select all that
apply.
Place the client on bed rest.
Evaluate the
electrolyte levels.
Administer the ordered diuretic.
assess
for orthostatic hypotension.
initiate cardiac monitoring
Place the client on bed rest
Evaluate the electrolyte
levels
Assess for orthostatic hypotension
Initiate cardiac
monitoring
**Nursing actions indicated at this time
include: placing the client on bedrest and assisting the client out
of bed, evaluating electrolyte levels, assessing for orthostatic
hypotension, and applying a cardiac monitor. Safety is required to
prevent falls due to weakness from a likely fluid volume deficit and
electrolyte imbalance. The nurse should review the laboratory and
diagnostic results to detect likely loss of sodium, potassium, and
magnesium secondary to diarrhea and diuretic us. Fluid volume deficit
is likely with diarrhea and diuretic use and leads to fluid and
electrolyte imbalances, especially hypokalemia. Assessing for
orthostatic changes will confirm presence of volume deficit.
Monitoring for
inverted T wave or presence of U wave on the ECG as well as dysrhythmias is indicated when hypokalemia is anticipated.Diuretics increase loss of fluids and electrolytes. The nurse would question this order in the presence of assessment data indicating fluid loss from the diuretics and diarrhea.
A client with hypokalemia has a prescription for parenteral potassium
chloride (KCl). Which of these interventions does the nurse use to
safely administer KCl?
Select all that apply.
Use a
potassium infusion prepared by a registered pharmacist.
Assess
for burning or redness during infusion.
Infuse at a rate of no
more than 10 mEq per hour.
Administer only through a central
venous catheter.
Administer by IV push only during cardiac arrest.
Use a potassium infusion prepared by a registered
pharmacist.
Assess for burning or redness during
infusion.
Infuse at a rate of no more than 10 mEq per hour.
**Interventions to safely administer KCl to a client with
hypokalemia include: using a pharmacy prepared potassium infusion,
checking the client for any burning or redness during infusion, and
infusing the IV at not more than 10 mEq per hour. The Joint
Commission's National Client Safety Goals mandates that concentrated
potassium be diluted and added to IV solutions only in the pharmacy by
a registered pharmacist and that vials of concentrated potassium not
be available in client care areas. IV potassium solutions irritate
veins and cause phlebitis. Assess the IV site hourly, and ask the
client whether he or she feels burning or pain at the site. The
presence of pain or burning at the insertion site may require a new
intravenous to be started. A dose of KCl 5-10 mEq/hour, no more than
20 mEq/hr is recommended.Potassium may be administered by peripheral
or central vein. There is no circumstance where potassium is given by
IV push.
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a loop diuretic for
treatment of heart failure. Which of these actions will be included in
the plan of care?
Select all that apply.
Assess
daily weights.
Encourage consumption of citrus
fruits.
Weigh the client weekly.
Monitor serum
potassium.
Discourage intake of spinach.
Monitor for bradycardia.
Assess daily weights
Encourage consumption of citrus
fruits
Monitor serum potassium.
**Actions for the
nurse to include when caring for a client taking a loop diuretic for
heart failure include: assessing daily weights, encouraging
consumption of citrus fruits, and monitoring the client's serum
potassium. High-ceiling (loop) diuretics remove excess fluid and are
potassium-depleting drugs. Consuming citrus fruit, green leafy
vegetables, cantaloupe, tomato, and other food with potassium is
indicated while receiving this type of diuretic to compensate for
urinary loss of potassium.The client must be weighed at the same time
each day, using the same scale and wearing approximately the same
amount of clothes. Green leafy vegetables such as spinach contain
potassium and are encouraged. The diuretic itself has no effect on the
heart rate, however potassium depletion caused by the diuretic may
cause cardiac irritability with a weak and thready pulse.
The nurse is caring for a client who takes furosemide (Lasix) and
digoxin (Lanoxin). The client's potassium (K+) level is 2.5 mEq/L (2.5
mmol/L). Which additional assessment will the nurse make?
Heart rate
Blood pressure (BP)
Increases in edema
Sodium level
Heart rate
**The nurse must assess the heart rate for
bradycardia related to digoxin and irritability or irregularity
related to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia increases the sensitivity of
cardiac muscle to digoxin and may result in digoxin toxicity, even
when the digoxin level is within the therapeutic range. The nurse
also assesses for GI symptoms such as diarrhea, and other symptoms of
toxicity to digoxin.The BP may decrease with low potassium level but
monitoring the pulse is essential. The diuretic would reduce edema,
therefore assessing the heart rate is the priority. High serum sodium
levels would not be expected in this scenario unless fluid volume
deficit is present.
Furosemide (Lasix) has been ordered for a client with heart failure,
shortness of breath, and 3+ pitting edema of the lower extremities.
Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the medication
has been effective?
The client's potassium level is 5.1
mEq/L (5.1 mmol/L).
The client's heart rate is 101 beats
per minute.
The client is free from adventitious breath
sounds.
The client has experienced a weight gain of 1
pound (0.5 kg).
The client is free from adventitious breath sounds.
**The nurse recognizes that Furosemide is effective when the
client is free from adventitious breath sounds such as crackles. Other
positive outcomes to the diuretic include normal heart rate, weight
loss with resolution of edema, and increased urine output.A potassium
value of 5.1 mEq/L or (5.1 mmol/L) is normal. Changes in potassium
levels such as hypokalemia are side effects of furosemide, not
therapeutic effects. Although a fall in the client's BP may occur with
the decrease in body fluid, this is not the priority. Tachycardia may
occur during episodes of fluid volume excess or deficit and does not
directly indicate the medication has been effective. Weight loss,
rather than weight gain, is often the effect of Furosemide, caused by
the diuresis.
The nurse is discussing safety when administering bumetanide with a
nursing student. The nurse recognizes that the student understands
side effects of this medication when the student makes which
statement?
"The client's PT and INR may be prolonged
while taking this medication."
"The client may
develop hypoglycemia during treatment."
"Inverted T waves and a U wave may appear on the
ECG."
"I need to tell the client to avoid salt substitutes."
"Inverted T waves and a U wave may appear on the
ECG."
**The nursing student understands the side
effects of Bumex when commenting that inverted T waves and a U wave
may appear on the EKG. Hypokalemia may cause depressed ST segments,
flat or inverted T waves or the presence of a U wave on the ECG as
well as dysrhythmias. High-ceiling (loop) diuretics, such as
furosemide (Lasix, furosemide), promote loss of water, sodium, and
potassium.PT and INR are typically prolonged with therapy with
warfarin (Coumadin) or individuals with liver disease. Hypoglycemia
may occur with oral hypoglycemic medications or insulin. Salt
substitutes are typically avoided when the client has hyperkalemia or
is taking an ACE inhibitor because many substitutes contain potassium chloride.
The nurse is teaching a client who is taking a potassium-sparing
diuretic about precautions while taking this medication. Which of
these does the nurse teach the client to avoid or use
cautiously?
Select all that apply.
Apples
Bananas
ACE inhibitors
Grapes
Salt substitute
Bananas
ACE Inhibitors
Salt substitute
**While
taking a potassium-sparing diuretic, the nurse teaches the client to
avoid bananas, ACE inhibitors, and salt substitutes. Other foods high
in potassium include cantaloupe, kiwi, oranges, avocados, broccoli,
dried beans, lima beans, mushrooms, potatoes, seaweed, soybeans, and
spinach. Salt substitutes contain potassium and may predispose the
client to hyperkalemia.Apples and grapes are considered lower
potassium-containing foods.
The nurse is assessing a client with a sodium level of 118 mEq/L (118
mmol/L). Which activity takes priority?
Monitoring urine
output
encouraging sodium rich fluids and foods
throughout the day
instructing the client not to ambulate
without assistance
assessing deep tendon reflexes
instructing the client not to ambulate without assistance
**Safety is the priority in this instance. Instructing the
client not to ambulate without assistance is the priority for a client
with a sodium level of 118 mEq/L (118 mmol/L). This sodium level
denotes severe hyponatremia which makes depolarization slower and cell
membranes less excitable. This is manifested as general muscle
weakness which is worse in the legs and arms. Additionally, this
client may have developed confusion from cerebral edema.Monitoring
urine output needs to be done but is not the priority action in this
situation. Generally, fluid is restricted, rather than sodium rich
foods offered, to minimize the hyponatremia. While the nurse may
assess muscle strength and deep tendon reflex responses, safety is the priority.
The nurse is infusing 3% saline for a client with syndrome of
inappropriate secretion (SIADH). Which of these complications does the
nurse report to the primary care provider?
Peripheral
edema
Crackles ½ way up the lung fields
Serum osmolarity of 294 mOsm/kg (294 mmol/kg)
Urine
output of 1300 mL over 24 hours
Crackles ½ way up the lung fields
**The nurse needs to
report to the PCP crackles heard ½ way up the lung fields when
assessed on a client with SIADH receiving an infusion of 3% saline.
When a hyperosmotic IV solution such as 3% saline is infused, the
interstitial fluid is pulled into the circulation in an attempt to
dilute the blood. As a result, the plasma volume expands. The nurse
needs to evaluate the client for fluid volume excess and symptoms of
heart failure including crackles.Peripheral edema may occur with
SIADH. A serum osmolarity of 294 mOsm/kg (294 mmol/kg) is normal. A
urine output of 1300 mL over 24 hours is considered normal.
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intravenous (IV)
magnesium sulfate. Which assessment parameter is critical?
Monitoring 24-hour urine output
Asking the client
about feeling depressed
Assessing the blood pressure
hourly
Monitoring the serum calcium levels
Assessing the blood pressure hourly
**Assessing hourly
blood pressures is critical when caring for a client receiving IV
magnesium sulfate. Hypotension is a sign/symptom of hypermagnesemia
during magnesium infusion.Most clients who have fluid and electrolyte
problems will be monitored for intake and output, and will not
immediately indicate problems with magnesium overdose. Low magnesium
levels can cause psychological depression, but assessing this
parameter as the levels are restored would not safely assess a safe
dose or an overdose. Although administration of magnesium sulfate can
cause a drop in calcium levels, this occurs over a period of time and
would not be the best way to assess magnesium toxicity.
A client is brought to the emergency department for increasing
weakness and muscle twitching. The laboratory results include a
potassium level of 7.0 mEq/L (7.0 mmol/L). Which assessments does the
nurse make?
Select all that apply.
History of liver
disease
Use of salt substitute
Use of an ACE
inhibitor
Potassium-sparing diuretics
Prescription for insulin
Use of salt substitute
Use of an ACE
inhibitor
Potassium-sparing diuretics
**When caring
for an ED client with an elevated potassium level, the nurse needs to
assess the client for any use of salt substitutes, any use of ACE
inhibitors or potassium-sparing diuretics, as well as kidney
disease.History of liver disease does not increase the client's
potassium level. Insulin, which moves potassium into the cell, can be
used as a treatment for hyperkalemia, in addition to diabetes. Taking
insulin would lower the potassium level.
After receiving change-of-shift report, which client does the RN
assess first?
A client with nausea and vomiting who
complains of abdominal cramps
A client with a nasogastric
(NG) tube who has dry oral mucosa and is complaining of thirst
A client receiving intravenous (IV) diuretics whose blood
pressure is 88/52 mm Hg
A client with normal saline
infusing at 150 mL/hr whose hourly urine output has been averaging 75 mL
A client receiving intravenous (IV) diuretics whose blood pressure is
88/52 mm Hg
**The nurse must first assess the client
receiving IV diuretics whose blood pressure is 88/52 mm Hg. This
client with hypotension may have developed hypoperfusion caused by
hypovolemia. Immediate interventions are needed.The client with
nausea and vomiting, the client with an NG tube complaining of
thirst, and the client receiving normal saline with an hourly urine
output of 75 mL/hr have problems which are not urgent at this time.
The primary care provider writes prescriptions for a client who is
admitted with a serum potassium level of 6.9 mEq/L (6.9 mmol/L). What
does the nurse implement first?
Administer sodium
polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) orally.
Ensure that a
potassium-restricted diet is ordered.
Place the client on
a cardiac monitor.
Teach the client about foods that are
high in potassium.
Place the client on a cardiac monitor.
**The nurse must
first place this client on a monitor. Because hyperkalemia can lead
to life-threatening bradycardia, placing the client on a cardiac
monitor permits early intervention in the event of
dysrhythmias.Administering a potassium-reducing medication,
recommending a potassium-restricted diet, and teaching the client
about diet are appropriate but will not immediately decrease the serum
potassium level and do not need to be implemented as quickly as
monitoring cardiac rhythm.
The nurse is planning care for a 72-year-old resident of a long-term
care facility who has a history of dehydration. Which action does the
nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
Assessing oral mucosa for dryness
Choosing
appropriate oral fluids
Monitoring skin turgor for
tenting
Offering fluids to drink every hour
Offering fluids to drink every hour
**Offering oral
fluids every hour is within the scope of practice for a
UAP.Assessments of oral mucosa, selection of appropriate fluids, and
assessment of skin turgor would be done by licensed nursing staff,
who have the needed education and scope of practice to implement
these more complex actions.
The nurse at a long-term care facility is teaching a group of
unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) about fluid intake principles for
older adults. Which of these should be included in the education
session?
"Be careful not to overload them with too
many oral fluids."
"Offer fluids that they
prefer frequently and on a regular schedule."
"Restrict their fluids if they are incontinent."
"Wake them every 2 hours during the night with a drink."
"Offer fluids that they prefer frequently and on a regular
schedule."
**The long-term care nurse teaches the
UAPs to frequently offer older adults fluids that they prefer and on
a regular basis. Because of the decreased thirst mechanism, older
adults can become dehydrated and must be offered oral fluids every 2
hours. The likelihood of their accepting the fluid increases if it is
one they prefer.Risk of overhydration, especially with oral fluids,
is minimal. Fluids would never be restricted even if the client is
incontinent. Restricting fluids to incontinent clients is a common
mistake made by UAP in long-term care environments. It is not
necessary to disturb older adults during their sleep to offer fluids.
However, they should be offered a drink during waking hours at
frequent intervals (e.g., every 2 hours).
The nurse is preparing a client a diagnosis of congestive heart
failure (CHF) for discharge. Which statement by the client indicates a
correct understanding of self-management of CHF?
"I
can gain 2 pounds (1 kg) of water a day without risk."
"I should call my provider if I gain more than 1 pound (0.5
kg) a week."
"Weighing myself daily can
determine if my caloric intake is adequate."
"Weighing myself daily can reveal increased fluid retention."
"Weighing myself daily can reveal increased fluid
retention."
**The client with CHF should weigh
himself daily to observe for increasing fluid retention, which may
not be visible. Rapid weight gain is the best indicator of fluid
retention and overload. Each pound (0.5 kg) of weight gained (after
the first half-pound [0.2 kg]) equates to 500 mL of retained water.
The client must be weighed at the same time every day (before
breakfast), and on the same scale.The client would call the primary
care provider if more than 1 or 2 pounds (0.5 or 1 kg) are gained in
a 24-hour period or if more than 3 pounds (1.4 kg) are gained in 1
week. Daily weights are not an indication of effective dieting for
purposes of weight loss or gain. They will show fluid retention after
an especially high sodium intake (in a client with fluid retention
problems), but caloric intake is related to food intake rather than
fluid retention problems.
The nurse is caring for a group of clients on a medical surgical
unit. Which newly written prescription will the nurse administer
first?
Intravenous normal saline to a client with a serum
sodium of 132 mEq/L (132 mmol/L)
Oral calcium
supplements to a client with severe osteoporosis
Oral
phosphorus supplements to a client with acute hypophosphatemia
Oral potassium chloride to a client whose serum potassium is 3
mEq/L (3 mmol/L)
Oral potassium chloride to a client whose serum potassium is 3 mEq/L
(3 mmol/L)
**The nurse must first administer oral
potassium supplements to the client with hypokalemia. Even minor
changes in serum potassium levels can cause life-threatening
dysrhythmias.The electrolyte disturbances (sodium level of 132 and
low phosphorus level) and the need for calcium in the other clients
are not immediately life-threatening.
The step-down unit receives a new admission who has uncontrolled diabetes, polyuria, and a blood pressure of 86/46. Which staff member is assigned to care for her?
A. LPN/LVN who has floated from the hospital's long-term care unit
B. LPN/LVN who frequently administers medications to multiple clients
C. RN who has floated from the intensive care unit
D. RN who usually works as a diabetes educator
C. RN who has floated from the intensive care unit
The nurse is caring for a group of clients with electrolytes and blood chemistry abnormalities. Which client will the nurse see first?
A. The client with a random glucose reading of 123.
B. The client who has a magnesium level of 2.1
C. The client whose potassium is 6.2.
D. The client with a sodium level of 143
C. The client whose potassium is 6.2
The client with hypermagnesemia is seen in the emergency department. Which of these interventions is most appropriate?
A. Monitor for hyperactive reflexes
B. Prepare for endotracheal intubation
C. institute teaching on avoiding magnesium rich foods
D. Place the client on a cardiac monitor
D. Place the client on a cardiac monitor
Which client is most appropriate for the nurse manager of the
medical-surgical unit to assign to the LPN/LVN?
A client
admitted with dehydration who has a heart rate of 126 beats/min
A client just admitted with hyperkalemia who takes a
potassium-sparing diuretic at home
A client admitted
yesterday with heart failure with dependent pedal edema
A client admitted yesterday with heart failure with dependent pedal
edema
**The most appropriate client to assign to the
LPN/LVN is the 64-year-old client admitted yesterday with heart
failure and dependent pedal edema. This client is the most stable of
all the four clients.Dehydration, tachycardia, potassium overload,
and GI signs and symptoms in a client indicate that he or she is
unstable. Care must be given by the RN who can carry out assessments,
prescriptions, and participate interdisciplinary collaboration as needed.
The nurse manager of a medical-surgical unit is completing
assignments for the day shift staff. The client with which electrolyte
laboratory value is assigned to the LPN/LVN?
Calcium
level of 9.5 mg/dL (2.4 mmol/L)
Magnesium level of 4.1
mEq/L (2.1 mmol/L)
Potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L (6.0
mmol/L)
Sodium level of 120 mEq/L (120 mmol/L)
Calcium level of 9.5 mg/dL (2.4 mmol/L)
**The client
with a calcium level of 9.5 mg/dL (2.4 mmol/L), a normal value, would
be assigned to the LPN/LVN.A magnesium level of 4.1 mEq/L (2.1
mmol/L) (normal is 1.8-2.6 mEq/L [0.74-1.07 mmol/L]) and potassium
level of 6.0 mEq/L (6.0 mmol/L) pose risk for dysrhythmia, and a
sodium level of 120 mEq/L (120 mmol/L) may cause serious cerebral
dysfunction requiring assessments and/or interventions by the RN.
The nurse is caring for an older adult with hypernatremia. Which of
these interventions does the nurse perform first?
Restrict the client's intake of sodium
Administer a
diuretic
Monitor the serum osmolarity
Encourage fluid intake
Encourage fluid intake
**When caring for an older adult
with hypernatremia, the nurse first encourages the client to take
more fluid. Encouraging fluids in the older adult is important to
prevent dehydration with resulting concentrated sodium
levels.Hypernatremia and fluid loss typically occur in tandem in the
older adult. Restricting sodium does not replace fluids needed by
many elderly clients. A diuretic will worsen the fluid volume deficit
the client is experiencing. Monitoring the osmolarity will detect an
abnormality, but not resolve the problem.
The RN is caring for a client who is severely dehydrated. Which
nursing action can be delegated to the unlicensed assistive personnel
(UAP)?
Consulting with a health care provider about a
client's laboratory results
Infusing 500 mL of normal
saline over 60 minutes
Monitoring IV fluid to maintain
the drip rate at 75 mL/hr
Providing oral care every 1 to
2 hours
Providing oral care every 1 to 2 hours
**Appropriate
intervention by an UAP to a client who is severely dehydrated is to
provide oral care every 1 to 2 hours. Frequent oral care is important
for a client with fluid volume deficit.Consulting with a primary care
provider about a client's laboratory results, infusing 500 mL of
normal saline, and monitoring IV fluids are complex actions and would
be performed by licensed personnel.
The charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is completing assignments
for the day shift. Which client is most appropriate to assign to the
LPN/LVN?
A 44-year-old with congestive heart failure
(CHF) who has gained 3 pounds (1.4 kg) since the previous day
A 58-year-old with chronic renal failure (CRF) who has a serum
potassium level of 6 mEq/L (6.0 mmol/L)
A 76-year-old
with poor skin turgor who has a serum osmolarity of 300 mOsm/kg (300
mmol/kg)
An 80-year-old with 3+ peripheral edema and
crackles throughout the posterior chest
A 76-year-old with poor skin turgor who has a serum osmolarity of 300
mOsm/kg (300 mmol/kg)
**The most appropriate client for
the nurse to assign to the LPV/LVN is the 76-year-old adult with poor
skin turgor and a serum osmolarity of 300 mOsm/kg (300 mmol/kg).
Although the 76-year-old client has poor skin turgor, the serum
osmolarity indicates normal fluid balance. This client is the most
stable of the four clients described.The 44-year-old with CHF who has
gained 3 pounds (1.4 kg) since the previous day requires additional
assessments and interventions which should be performed by an RN. The
data about the 58-year-old client with CRF and a serum potassium
level of 6 mEq/L (6.0 mmol/L) has a risk for dysrhythmia and
instability. Assessments and interventions performed by an RN are
also needed on this client. The data about the 80-year-old client
with edema and congested lungs indicate that the client is not
stable, requiring ongoing assessments and interventions by an RN.
The nurse is caring for a client receiving lactated Ringer's solution
IV for rehydration. Which assessments will the nurse monitor during
intravenous therapy?
Select all that apply.
Blood
serum glucose
Blood pressure
Pulse rate and
quality
Urinary output
Urine specific gravity
Blood pressure
Pulse rate and quality
Urinary
output
Urine specific gravity
**The two most
important areas to monitor during rehydration are pulse rate and
quality and urine output. In addition, decreasing specific gravity of
urine is also an indication of rehydration. Blood pressure is another
important vital sign to monitor during rehydration.Blood glucose
changes do not have a direct relation to a client's hydration status;
lactated ringers are free from glucose.
The rapid response team (RRT) is called to the bedside of a client
with heart rate of 38 beats per minute and a potassium level of 7.0
mEq/L (7.0 mmol/L). For which medication will the nurse anticipate a
prescription?
Insulin
atropine
Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
potassium phosphate
Insulin
**The rapid response nurse expects to administer
a combination of 20 units of regular insulin in 100 mL of 20%
dextrose in water. This may be prescribed to promote movement of
potassium from the blood into the intracellular fluid.While atropine
will treat bradycardia, it does not address the underlying cause of
bradycardia which is likely hyperkalemia. Sodium polystyrene
sulfonate (Kayexalate)may be used for hyperkalemia, but it will not
act quickly enough in an emergency. Additional potassium such as
contained in potassium phosphate will make the client's condition
more critical.
atropine
A client develops fluid overload while in the intensive care unit.
Which nursing intervention does the nurse perform first?
Draws blood for laboratory tests
Elevates the head
of the bed
Places the extremities in a dependent
position
Puts the client in a side-lying position
Elevates the head of the bed
**The nurse first needs to
elevate the client's head of bed when caring for a client with fluid
overload. Remember to follow the ABC's and perform interventions that
promote lung expansion and oxygenation to relieve symptoms of fluid
overload.Drawing blood for laboratory tests may be indicated, but
would not be performed first. Placing the extremities in a dependent
position increases peripheral edema, and positioning the client in a
side-lying position increases the work of breathing.
An older adult is admitted to the medical surgical unit with
dehydration. The nurse performs which of these assessments to
determine whether the client is safe for independent ambulation?
Assesses for dry oral mucous membranes
Checks for
orthostatic blood pressure changes
Notes pulse rate is 72
beats/min and bounding
Evaluates that the serum potassium
level is 4.0 mEq/L (4.0 mmol/L)
Checks for orthostatic blood pressure changes
**When
caring an older adult admitted for dehydration, the nurse determines
if the client is safe for independent ambulation by assessing for
orthostatic blood pressure. Blood pressure measured with the client
lying, then sitting, and finally standing is done to detect
orthostatic or postural changes. During low blood volume states,
especially when standing, insufficient blood flow to the brain may
cause hypotension and tachycardia upon arising. This may cause
light-headedness and dizziness, which increases the risk for falls,
especially in older adults.Assessment of oral mucous membranes and the
pulse rate can detect symptoms of dehydration, but these are not the
best ways to assess for a fall risk. Checking serum potassium does
ensure safety for ambulation nor assess for fall risk.
The nurse is assessing fluid balance in the client with heart
failure. Which of these strategies will the nurse employ?
Ask the client how much fluid was consumed yesterday.
Place an indwelling catheter to measure urine output.
Auscultate the lungs for adventitious sounds.
Weigh
the client daily, at the same time.
Weigh the client daily, at the same time.
**When
assessing fluid balance on a client with heart failure the nurse must
weigh the client at the same time every day. Changes in daily weights
are the best indicators of fluid losses or gains. A weight change of
1 pound (0.5 kg) corresponds to a fluid volume change of about 500 mL
therefore the weight must be compared to intake and output.The nurse
must weigh the client rather than rely on client estimate or memory.
An indwelling catheter poses a risk for catheter associated urinary
tract infection, and is reserved for specific reasons. Auscultating
for adventitious lung sounds or crackles will demonstrate fluid
overload, but may not immediately show up.
A client is admitted to the hospital with dehydration secondary to
influenza and vomiting. The provider orders an intravenous (IV)
potassium replacement for potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L (2.7 mmol/L).
Which of these best practice techniques does the nurse include when
administering this medication?
Select all that apply.
Ensuring that the concentration is no greater than
1?9?mEq/10?9?mL of solution
Use a vein in the hand for better
flow
Use an IV pump to deliver the medication
Check IV
access for blood return after the infusion
Push the medication
over 5 minutes
Ensuring that the concentration is no greater than 1?9?mEq/10?9?mL of
solution
Use an IV pump to deliver the medication
**Best practice technique for administering IV potassium
replacement is to ensure that the concentration is no greater than 1
mEq/10 mL of solution. A pump or controller device must be used to
deliver the medication to prevent rapid infusion and complications of
hyperkalemia, including cardiac arrest.Potassium must be infused via a
large vein with a high volume of flow, avoiding the hand. The maximum
recommended infusion rate of potassium is 5 to 10 mEq/hr. This rate is
never to exceed 20 mEq/hr. Potassium would never be administered via
IV push. Assess the IV access for placement and an adequate blood
return before administering potassium-containing solutions.
A client with mild hypokalemia caused by diuretic use is discharged
home. The home health nurse delegates which of these interventions to
the home health aide?
Assessment of muscle tone and
strength
Education about potassium-rich foods
Instruction on the proper use of drugs
Measurement
of the client's weight
Measurement of the client's weight
**The intervention
that can be delegated to the home health aide is to measure the
client's weight. Measuring the client's intake and output and
reporting it to the RN helps determines if the plan of care has been
effective.Assessment, education, and instruction are higher-level
nursing actions within the scope of practice of the professional nurse.
The nurse is caring for a client receiving lactated Ringer's solution IV for rehydration. Which assessments will the nurse monitor during intravenous therapy? Select all that apply
A. Blood serum glucose
B. Blood pressure
C. pulse rate and quality
D. Urinary output
E. Urine specific gravity
B. Blood presure
C. Pulse rate and quality
D. urinary output
E. Urine specific gravity
The nurse is caring for a client with acute respiratory failure and PaCO2 level of 88 mm Hg For which of these signs and symptoms will the nurse assess? Select all that apply
A. Hyperactivity
B. Headache
C. Shallow breathing
D. PH 7.49
E. Fatigue
B. Headache
C. Shallow breathing
E. Fatigue
When caring for a client with acute respiratory failure and respiratory acidosis, the nurse would assess for lethargy, flushing, headache, shallow breathing, and fatigue. Clients experiencing acidosis have problems associated with the decreased function of excitable membranes. Generally, the client with respiratory acidosis will be lethargic rather than hyperactive and have a ph less than 7.35, which is a characteristic of acidosis.
When caring for a client who has the following blood gas results, which of these interventions does the nurse plan to use to correct the acid base disturbance? pH 7.47—pCO2 37 mm hg- HCO3 30 mEq/L (30 mmol/L)—pO2 88mm hg
A. Endotracheal suctioning
B. Apply Oxygen
C. Administer an antiemetic
D. Administering sodium Bicarbonate
administering an antiemetic
This blood gas demonstrates metabolic alkalosis typically caused
by vomiting or NG suction. The client loses potassium and retains
bicarbonate; an antiemetic will reduce vomiting and correct the
imbalance.Endotracheal suction is indicated for retained respiratory
secretions, which would be reflected as a respiratory acidosis. The
pO2 is between 80 and 100 mmHg, which is normal, supplementary oxygen
is not required. Sodium bicarbonate is used to treat metabolic
acidosis in certain situations.
The nurse is caring for a client with long standing emphysema and respiratory acidosis. For which of these compensatory mechanisms will the nurse assess?
A. Decreased Rate of breathing
B. Increased loss of bicarbonate through the kidney
C. Decreased depth breathing
D. Decreased loss of bicarbonate through the kidney
Decreased loss of bicarbonate through the kidney
The compensatory mechanism the nurse anticipates is present in
the client with long standing emphysema and respiratory acidosis is
conservation of bicarbonate. A partially compensated respiratory
acidosis will typically result.Increased loss of bicarbonate through
the kidney, decreased rate, and depth of breathing will promote
acidosis.
Question 7 of 10
Which of these findings causes the critical care nurse to notify the primary care provider (PCP) for evaluation for intubation?
Increasing somnolence
The critical nurse notifies the primary
health care provider for somnolence consistent with worsening
respiratory acidosis. Other client findings related to worsening
respiratory acidosis caused by CO2 retention include: headache,
fatigue, lethargy, and decreased respirations which may require
intubation and mechanical ventilation.Pallor is a sign of hypoxemia,
lack of oxygen to the tissues. As pallor may occur with anemia, this
finding alone does not represent a need for intubation. Deep
respirations and bounding pulse are not consistent with respiratory acidosis.
When caring for a client with a burn injury and eschar banding the chest, the nurse plans to observe the client for which of these acid base disturbances?
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis
The nurse plans to observe the client with a burn injury and
eschar banding the chest for respiratory acidosis related to decreased
chest excursion. Circumferential eschar will result in
hypoventilation, accumulation of carbon dioxide and resulting
respiratory acidosis.Respiratory alkalosis is caused by
hyperventilation, increased rate or depth of breathing, causing carbon
dioxide to be eliminated in excess. Metabolic acid base disturbances
are usually caused by renal issues.
The nurse is caring for a group of clients. Which client will the nurse carefully observe for signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia?
the client who has metabolic acidosis
The nurse would carefully observe for signs of metabolic
acidosis in a client with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia occurs as the
body attempts to buffer the acidosis by moving hydrogen ions into the
cells. An equal number of potassium ions move from the cells into the
blood to maintain intracellular electroneutrality, resulting in
hyperkalemia.The client receiving TPN is at risk for metabolic
alkalosis due to an increase in base components. Metabolic alkalosis
is associated with hypochloremia rather than hyperkalemia. The client
with profuse vomiting or taking a diuretic is also at risk for
metabolic alkalosis and hypokalemia.
The nursing assistant reports that the client with metabolic acidosis due to kidney failure is breathing rapidly and deeply. The nurse explains this to the nursing assistant in which of these manners?
A. The client is acting out and we should pay him no mind
B. Rapid breathing is a way to compensate for acidosis caused by his condition
C. Normally a client with this disorder will breathe slowly, I will go assess him
D. Deep breathing is a symptom of diabetes; I will check his blood glucose.
Rapid breathing is a way to compensate for acidosis caused by his condition"
The nurse explains that kussmaul or rapid and deep breathing
helps the body compensate for metabolic acidosis by blowing off the
CO2 or respiratory acid through the lungs. This will also increase the
body's pH level.The client would not be judged for acting out without
a clear understanding of the underlying client's cause. Slow
respirations are not consistent with metabolic acidosis, however, may
cause respiratory acidosis. Deep breathing (Kussmaul breathing) is a
compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis ocurring with DKA or
kidney disease.
The nurse is caring for a client who has developed postoperative respiratory acidosis. Which of these interventions will the nurse use to help correct this problem?
A. Medicate for pain
B. Encourage use of incentive spirometer
C. Perform finger stick blood glucose
D. Encourage protein intake
Encourage use of incentive spirometer.
The intervention that will best help the client with
postoperative respiratory acidosis is to encourage the client to use
the incentive spirometer. Respiratory acidosis is caused by
hypoventilation. Improving ventilation through lung expansion,
suctioning, or upright positioning will help to resolve this.While
pain medication may make use of the incentive spirometer easier,
narcotic analgesics may suppress respirations and worsen acidosis.
There is no indication the client has an unstable blood glucose level.
Protein intake facilitates wound healing, not resolution of acidosis.
The nurse and nursing student are caring for a client with a new diagnosis of diabetes whose blood glucose is 974 mg/dL (54.1 mmol/L). Which of these statements indicates the student understands the relationship between blood glucose and acid base balance?
"The hyperglycemia is caused by inability of glucose to enter
the cell causing a starvation state and break down of fats"
The nursing student understands the relationship between blood
glucose and acid base balance when the student states that
hyperglycemia is caused by inability of glucose to enter the cell
causing a starvation state and break down of fats. Glucose cannot
enter the cell to provide energy without the presence of insulin. The
body begins to break down fat for energy which produces ketones and
causes ketoacidosis.The client with ketoacidosis will hyperventilate,
breathing more rapidly and deeply to rid the body of respiratory acids
such as CO2. This process buffers the acidosis. A hyperosmolar state
does occur, however the acid base balance is still affected. CO2 is
retained when the client's inability to ventilate or remove CO2
effectively occurs. Hypercarbia, CO2 retention, is generally caused by
problems affecting the pulmonary system.
The nurse is caring for a client with sepsis and impending septic shock. Which of these interventions will help prevent lactic acidosis?
A. Ensure adequate oxygenation
B. Restrict carbohydrates
C. Supplement postassium
D. Monitor hemoglobin
ensure adequate oxygenation
When caring for a client with sepsis
and impending shock the nurse will ensure adequate oxygenation to help
prevent lactic acidosis. Cellular metabolism under anaerobic (no
oxygen) conditions forms lactic acid. Shock states are due to a lack
of cellular perfusion and delivery of oxygen to the tissues. Providing
adequate oxygenation and perfusion will help to reverse the need for
the body to make ATP without oxygen which causes lactic acid to
accumulate.Carbohydrate metabolism forms carbon dioxide (CO2) and
carbohydrate restriction will not prevent lactic acidosis, a form of
metabolic acidosis. Supplementing potassium may worsen hyperkalemia,
as this is an expected finding during episodes of metabolic acidosis.
While hemoglobin is a weak buffer, monitoring the value will not
prevent an acid-base disturbance.
The nurse is documenting peripheral venous catheter insertion for a
client. What does the nurse include in the note? Select all that apply.
Client's name and hospital number
Client's response to the
insertion
Date and time inserted
Type and size of
device
Type of dressing applied
Vein used for insertion
Client's response to the insertion, Date and time inserted, Type and size of device, Type of dressing applied, Vein used for insertion
The nurse assessing a client's peripheral IV site obtains and
documents information about it. Which assessment data indicate the
need for immediate nursing intervention?
A. Client states, "It really hurt when the nurse put the IV
in."
B. The vein feels hard and cordlike above the insertion
site.
C. Transparent dressing was changed 5 days ago.
D.
Tubing for the IV was last changed 72 hours ago.
The vein feels hard and cordlike above the insertion site.
A hard, cordlike vein suggests phlebitis at the IV site and
indicates an immediate need for nursing intervention. The IV should be
discontinued and restarted at another site.It is common for IVs to
cause pain during insertion. An intact transparent dressing requires
changing only every 7 days. Tubing for peripheral IVs should be
changed every 72 to 96 hours.
Which statement is true about the special needs of older adults
receiving IV therapy?
A. Placement of the catheter on the back of the client's
dominant hand is preferred.
B. Skin integrity can be compromised
easily by the application of tape or dressings.
C. To avoid
rolling the veins, a greater angle of 25 degrees between the skin and
the catheter will improve success with venipuncture.
D. When the
catheter is inserted into the forearm, excess hair should be shaved
before insertion.
Skin integrity can be compromised easily by the application of tape
or dressings.
Skin in older adults tends to be thin. Tape or dressings used
with IV therapy can compromise skin integrity.Placement on the back of
the dominant hand is contraindicated because hand movement can
increase the risk of catheter dislodgement. An angle smaller than 25
degrees is required for venipuncture success in older adults. This
technique is less likely to puncture through the older adult client's
vein. Clipping, and not shaving, the hair around the insertion site
typically is necessary only for younger men.
When flushing a client's central line with normal saline, the nurse
feels resistance. Which action does the nurse take first?
A. Decrease the pressure being used to flush the line.
B.
Obtain a 10-mL syringe and reattempt flushing the line.
C. Stop
flushing and try to aspirate blood from the line.
D. Use
"push-pull" pressure applied to the syringe while flushing
the line.
Stop flushing and try to aspirate blood from the line.
The nurse's first step is to stop flushing and try to aspirate
blood from the line. If resistance is felt when flushing any IV line,
the nurse should stop and further assess the line. Aspiration of blood
would indicate that the central line is intact and is not obstructed
by thrombus.Decreasing the pressure to flush the line is not
appropriate. Continuing or reattempting to flush the line, or using a
push-pull action on the syringe, might result in thrombus or injection
of particulate matter into the client's circulation.
The nurse is administering a drug to a client through an implanted
port. Before giving the medication, what does the nurse do to ensure safety?
A. Administer 5 mL of a heparinized solution.
B. Check for
blood return.
C. Flush the port with 10 mL of normal
saline.
D. Palpate the port for stability.
Check for blood return.
To ensure safety, before a drug is given through an implanted
port, the nurse must first check for blood return. If no blood return
is observed, the drug should be held until patency is reestablished.If
no blood return is observed, the drug should be held until patency is
reestablished. Ports are flushed with heparin or saline after, rather
than before, use. The port is palpated for stability, but this action
alone does not ensure the client's safety.
A client who takes corticosteroids daily for rheumatoid arthritis
requires insertion of an IV catheter to receive IV antibiotics for 5
days. Which type of IV catheter does the nurse teach the new graduate
nurse to use for this client?
A. Midline catheter
B. Tunneled percutaneous central
catheter
C. Peripherally inserted central catheter
D. Short
peripheral catheter
Midline catheter
For a client with fragile veins (which occur with long-term
corticosteroid use) and the need for a catheter for 5 days, the
midline catheter is the best choice.Tunneled central catheters usually
are used for clients who require IV access for longer periods.
Peripherally inserted central catheters usually are used for clients
who require IV access for longer periods. A short peripheral catheter
is likely to infiltrate before 5 days in a client with fragile veins,
requiring reinsertion.
The nurse checking an IV fluid order questions its accuracy. What
does the nurse do first?
A. Asks the charge nurse about the order
B. Contacts the
health care provider who ordered it
C. Contacts the pharmacy for
clarification
D. Starts the fluid as ordered, with plans to check
it later
Contacts the health care provider who ordered it
First, the nurse contacts the health care provider who ordered
it. The nurse is legally and professionally responsible for accuracy
and has the duty to verify the order with the health care provider who
ordered it.The nurse can consult the charge nurse, but this is not the
definitive action that the nurse should take. Contacting the pharmacy
is not the best action that the nurse should take. Giving (or
starting) the fluid when the order is questionable is not appropriate
and could possibly harm the client.
The nurse is teaching a hospitalized client who is being discharged
about how to care for a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC)
line. Which client statement indicates a need for further education?
A. "I can continue my 20-mile (32-km) running schedule as I
have for the past 10 years."
B. "I can still go about
my normal activities of daily living."
C. "I have less
chance of getting an infection because the line is not in my
hand."
D. "The PICC line can stay in for months."
"I can continue my 20-mile (32-km) running schedule as I have
for the past 10 years."
The statement by the client stating that his or her normal
running schedule can continue indicates a need for further education.
Excessive physical activity can dislodge the PICC and should be
avoided.Clients with PICCs should be able to perform normal activities
of daily living. PICCs have low complication rates because the
insertion site is in the upper extremity. The dry skin of the arm has
fewer types and numbers of microorganisms, leading to lower rates of
infection. PICC lines can be used long term (months).
Which client does the charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit assign
to the LPN/LVN?
A. Cardiac client who has a diltiazem (Cardizem) IV infusion
being titrated to maintain a heart rate between 60 and 80
beats/min
B. Diabetic client admitted for hyperglycemia who is on
an IV insulin drip and needs frequent glucose checks
C. Older
client admitted for confusion who has a heparin lock that needs to be
flushed every 8 hours
D. Postoperative client receiving blood
products after excessive blood loss during surgery
Older client admitted for confusion who has a heparin lock that needs
to be flushed every 8 hours
The older client admitted for confusion with a heparin lock is
the most stable and requires basic monitoring of the IV site for
common complications such as phlebitis and local infection, which
would be familiar to an LPN/LVN.The cardiac client with a diltiazem
(Cardizem) IV infusion, the diabetic client on an IV insulin drip, and
the postoperative client receiving blood products all are not stable
and will require ongoing assessments and adjustments in IV therapy
that should be performed by an RN.
A client is being admitted to the burn unit from another hospital.
The client has an intraosseous IV that was started 2 days ago,
according to the client's medical record. What does the admitting
nurse do first?
A. Anticipate an order to discontinue the intraosseous IV and
start an epidural IV.
B. Call the previous hospital to verify the
date.
C. Immediately discontinue the intraosseous IV.
D.
Nothing; this is a long-term treatment.
Anticipate an order to discontinue the intraosseous IV and start an
epidural IV.
The admitting nurse would first anticipate an order to
discontinue the intraosseous IV and start an epidural IV. The
intraosseous route should be used only during the immediate period of
resuscitation and should not be used for longer than 24 hours.
Alternative IV routes, such as epidural access, should then be
considered for pain management.The nurse should know what to do in
this client's situation without contacting the previous hospital.
Other client data, such as the date and time that the burn occurred,
should validate the date and time of insertion of the IV.
Discontinuing the IV is not the priority in this situation—the client
is in a precarious fluid balance situation. One IV access should not
be stopped until another is established. This type of IV is not used
for long-term therapy; an action must be taken.
A severely dehydrated client requires a rapid infusion of normal
saline and needs a midline IV placed. Which staff member does the
emergency department (ED) charge nurse assign to complete this
task?
A. RN who is certified in the administration of oral and
infused chemotherapy medications
B. RN with 2 years of experience
in the ED who is skilled at insertion of short peripheral
catheters
C. RN with 10 years of experience on a medical-surgical
unit who has cared for many clients requiring IV infusions
D. RN with certified registered nurse infusion (CRNI) certification who is assigned to the ED for the day
RN with certified registered nurse infusion (CRNI) certification who
is assigned to the ED for the day
The nurse with CRNI certification is most likely to be able to
quickly insert a midline catheter for a client who is dehydrated.The
chemotherapy nurse and the ED nurse have the appropriate scope of
practice, but will not be as skilled in inserting a midline IV
catheter. The medical-surgical nurse may be skilled at inserting short
peripheral catheters, but will not be skilled in inserting midline IV catheters.
A 22-year-old client is seen in the emergency department (ED) with
acute right lower quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and rebound
tenderness. It appears that surgery is imminent. What gauge catheter
does the ED nurse choose when starting this client's intravenous solution?
A. 24
B. 22
C. 18
D. 14
18
An 18-gauge catheter is the size of choice for clients who
will undergo surgery. If they need to receive fluids rapidly, or if
they need to receive more viscous fluids (such as blood or blood
products), a lumen of this size would accommodate those needs.Neither
a 24-gauge nor a 22-gauge catheter is an appropriate size (too small)
for clients who will undergo surgery. If it becomes necessary to
administer fluids to the client rapidly, another IV would be needed
with a larger needle—18, for example. Administering through the
smallest gauge necessary is usually best practice, unless the client
may be going into hypovolemic status (shock). A 14-gauge catheter is
an extremely large-gauge needle that is very damaging to the vein.
A client is to receive an IV solution of 5% dextrose and 0.45% normal
saline at 125 mL/hr. Which system provides the safest method for the
nurse to accurately administer this solution?
A. Controller
B. Glass container
C. Infusion
pump
D. Syringe pump
Infusion pump
The safest method is to administer the solution with an infusion
pump. Infusion pumps are used for drugs or fluids under pressure. They
accurately measure the volume of fluid being infused.A controller is a
stationary, pole-mounted electronic device that uses a sensor to
monitor fluid flow and detect when flow has been interrupted. Because
controllers rely completely on gravity to create fluid flow and do not
create pressure, they do not ensure infusion but only control the drip
rate. A glass container is necessary to use only with IV solutions
that may cling to the plastic bag. This IV solution does not cling to
plastic bags. A syringe pump does not hold sufficient volume to be
practical in this situation.
The nurse is starting a peripheral IV catheter on a recently admitted
client. What actions does the nurse perform before insertion of the
line? Select all that apply.
A. Apply povidone-iodine to clean skin, dry for 2
minutes.
B. Clean the skin around the site.
C. Prepare the
skin with 70% alcohol or chlorhexidine.
D. Shave the hair around
the area of insertion.
E. Wear clean gloves and touch the site
only with fingertips after applying antiseptics.
A. Apply povidone-iodine to clean skin, dry for 2 minutes.
B.
Clean the skin around the site.
C. Prepare the skin with 70%
alcohol or chlorhexidine.
The nurse is admitting clients to the same-day surgery unit. Which
insertion site for routine peripheral venous catheters does the nurse
choose most often?
A. Back of the hand for an older adult
B. Cephalic vein of
the forearm
C. Lower arm on the side of a radical
mastectomy
D. Subclavian vein
Cephalic vein of the forearm
The cephalic vein of the forearm is the insertion site chosen
most often. For same-day surgery, the cephalic or basilic vein allows
insertion of a larger IV catheter while allowing movement of the arm
without impairing intravenous flow.Peripheral venous catheters should
never be inserted into the back of the hand in an older adult because
the veins are brittle. Peripheral venous catheters should never be
inserted into the lower arm on the same side as a radical mastectomy
because they interfere with limited circulation. Catheters are
typically inserted into the subclavian vein by the health care
provider, not by the nurse.
A client admitted to the intensive care unit is expected to remain
for 3 weeks. The nurse has orders to start an IV. Which vascular
access device is best for this client?
A. Midline catheter
B. Peripherally inserted central
catheter (PICC)
C. Short peripheral catheter
D. Tunneled
central catheter
Midline catheter
Midline catheters are the best device for this client. These
catheters are used for therapies lasting from 1 to 4 weeks.PICCs are
typically used when IV therapy is expected to last for months. Short
peripheral catheters are allowed to dwell (stay in) for 72 to 96
hours, but they then require removal and insertion at another venous
site. Tunneled central catheters must be inserted by a health care
provider. Nurses are typically not qualified to start tunneled central catheters.
A client is seen in the emergency department (ED) with pain, redness,
and warmth of the right lower arm. The client was in the ED last week
after an accident at work. On the day of the injury, the client was in
the ED for 12 hours receiving IV fluids. On close examination, the
nurse notes the presence of a palpable cord 1 inch (2.5 cm) in length
and streak formation. How does the nurse classify this client's phlebitis?
A. Grade 1
B. Grade 2
C. Grade 3
D. Grade 4
Grade 3
Grade 3 indicates pain at the access site with erythema and/or
edema and streak formation with a 1' palpable cord.Grade 1 indicates
only erythema with or without pain; the client has additional
symptoms. Grade 2 indicates only pain at the access site with erythema
and/or edema; the client has additional symptoms. Grade 4 indicates
pain at the access site with erythema and/or edema, streak formation,
a palpable venous cord longer than 1 inch (2.5 cm), and purulent
drainage. No purulent drainage is present in this client, and the
palpable cord is 1 inch (2.5 cm) in length.
A client who is receiving intravenous antibiotic treatments every 6
hours has an intermittent IV set that was opened and begun 20 hours
ago. What action does the nurse take?
A. Change the set immediately.
B. Change the set in about 4
hours.
C. Change the set in the next 12 to 24 hours.
D.
Nothing; the set is for long-term use.
Change the set in about 4 hours.
Because both ends of the set are being manipulated with each
dose, standards of practice dictate that the set should be changed
every 24 hours, so the set should be changed in about 4 hours.It is
not necessary to change out the set immediately, but it must be
changed before the next 12 to 24 hours.
A client who used to work as a nurse asks, "Why is the hospital
using a 'fancy new IV' without a needle? That seems expensive."
How does the nurse respond?
A. "OSHA, a government agency, requires us to use this new
type of IV."
B. "These systems are designed to save
time, not money."
C. "They minimize health care
workers' exposure to contaminated needles."
D. "They
minimize clients' exposure to contaminated needles."
They minimize health care workers' exposure to contaminated needles."
The nurse informs the client that needleless IVs were designed
to protect health care personnel from exposure to contaminated
needles.The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
requires the use of devices with engineered safety mechanisms only. It
does not mandate that they be needleless. Saving time and money is not
the purpose of the needleless IV, and it was not designed to protect
clients from exposure to contaminated needles.
The nurse is to administer a unit of whole blood to a postoperative
client. What does the nurse do to ensure the safety of the blood transfusion?
A. Asks the client to both say and spell his or her full name
before starting the blood transfusion
B. Ensures that another
qualified health care professional checks the unit before
administering
C. Checks the blood identification numbers with the
laboratory technician at the blood bank at the time it is
dispensed
D. Makes certain that an IV solution of 0.9% normal
saline is infusing into the client before starting the unit
Ensures that another qualified health care professional checks the
unit before administering
To ensure safety, blood must be checked by two qualified health
care professionals, usually two registered nurses.Administering an
incorrectly matched unit of blood creates great consequences for the
client and is considered to be a sentinel event. It requires a great
amount of follow-up and often changing of policies to improve safety.
The Joint Commission requires that the client provide two identifiers,
but they are the name and date of birth or some other identifying
data, depending on the facility; saying and spelling the name is only
one identifier. Although a check is provided at the blood bank, this
is not the one that is done before administration to the client.
Clients do need to have normal saline running with blood, but this is
not considered to be part of the safety check before administration of
blood and blood products.
A client is admitted to the cardiothoracic surgical intensive care
unit after cardiac bypass surgery. The client is still sedated on a
ventilator and has an arterial catheter in the right wrist. What
assessment does the nurse make to determine patency of the client's
arterial line?
A. Blood pressure
B. Capillary refill and pulse
C.
Neurologic function
D. Questioning the client about the pain
level at the site
Capillary refill and pulse
Capillary refill and pulse should be assessed to ensure that the
arterial line is not occluding the artery.Blood pressure and
neurologic function are not pertinent to the client's arterial line.
Although the client's comfort level is important with an arterial
line, it is not a determinant of patency of the line.
A 70-year-old client with severe dehydration is ordered an infusion
of an isotonic solution at 250 mL/hr through a midline IV catheter.
After 2 hours, the nurse notes that the client has crackles throughout
all lung fields. Which action does the nurse take first?
A. Assess the midline IV insertion site.
B. Have the client
cough and deep-breathe.
C. Notify the health care provider about
the crackles.
D. Slow the rate of the IV infusion.
Slow the rate of the IV infusion.
The presence of crackles throughout the lungs is a sign of
possible fluid overload. The nurse should slow the rate of infusion
and further assess for indicators of volume overload and/or
respiratory distress.The presence of crackles throughout the lungs is
a sign of possible fluid overload. The nurse should slow the rate of
infusion and further assess for indicators of volume overload and/or
respiratory distress. Assessing the site and having the client cough
and deep-breathe are not appropriate. Crackles do not disappear with
coughing. Notifying the provider may be appropriate, but is not the
initial actions for this client.
The nurse is revising an agency's recommended central line
catheter-related bloodstream infection prevention (CR-BSI) bundle.
Which actions decrease the client's risk for this complication? Select
all that apply.
A. During insertion, draping the area around the site with a
sterile barrier
B. Immediately removing the client's venous
access device (VAD) when it is no longer needed
C. Making certain
that observers of the insertion are instructed to look away during the
procedure
D. Thorough hand hygiene (i.e., no quick scrub) before insertion
Immediately removing the client's venous access device (VAD) when it is no longer needed, Thorough hand hygiene (i.e., no quick scrub) before insertion, Using chlorhexidine for skin disinfection
The nurse who is starting the shift finds a client with an IV that is
leaking all over the bed linens. What does the nurse do initially?
A. Assess the insertion site.
B. Check connections.
C.
Check the infusion rate.
D. Discontinue the IV and start another.
Assess the insertion site.
The initial response by the nurse is to assess the insertion
site. The purpose of this action is to check for patency, which is the
priority. IV assessments typically begin at the insertion site and
move "up" the line from the insertion site to the tubing, to
the tubing's connection to the bag.Checking the IV connection is
important, but is not the priority in this situation. Checking the
infusion rate is not the priority. Discontinuing the IV to start
another may be required, but it may be possible to "save"
the IV, and the problem may be positional or involve a loose connection.
The nurse is inserting a peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter. Which
client statement is of greatest concern during this procedure?
A. "I hate having IVs started."
B. "It hurts
when you are inserting the line."
C. "My hand tingles
when you poke me."
D. "My IV lines never last very long."
My hand tingles when you poke me."
The client's statement about a tingling feeling indicates
possible nerve puncture and is of greatest concern to the nurse. To
avoid further nerve damage, the nurse should stop immediately, remove
the IV catheter, and choose a new site.Statements such as, "I
hate having IVs started," "It hurts when you are inserting
the line," and "My IVs never last very long," are
addressed with teaching about the importance of proper protection of
the site.