This is the lobe that is responsible for voluntary movement, speaking, thinking, judgement, formation expression of feeling
Frontal lobes
This is the lobe that is responsible for perception and interpretation of the most sensory information (include touch, pain, taste, and body position)
Parietal lobes
This is the lobe that is responsible for hearing, short term memory and sense of smell: Expression of emotion through connection with limbic system
Temporal lobes
This is the lobe that is responsible for visual reception and interpretation
Occipital lobes
This is responsible for the integrates all sensory input
Thalamus
Which structures of the brain play an important role in perception interpretation and integration of most of the sensory information except smell
- THALAMUS
- Parietal lobe
What structure of the brain is referred to as the emotional brain?
Limbic system
The central nervous system has connections in which organ related to the immune system?
Spleen
Which structure of the brain is responsible for producing the hormone that stimulates the uterus during labor?
Hypothalamus
Which structure of the brain is called the creative brain?
The right hemisphere of the cerebrum
Which structure of the brain contains reflex Center for swallowing, sneezing, coughing, and vomiting?
Medulla
The nurse is caring for a child with depression. The child's mother tells the nurse, my child does not notice me entering his room when he is studying for a test. Which of the following structures of the brain is responsible for this behavior ?
Thalamus center
Which structures of the brain playing important role in voluntary and involuntary body movements?
Frontal lobe and cerebellum
Which neurotransmitters play an important role in regulation of sleep and arousal
- acetylcholine
- norepinephrine
- Serotonin
Which hormone of the neuroendocrine system is stored in the neurohypophysis?
- Anti diuretic hormone
During the winter months, the nurse would expect to note an increase in which hormone level
melatonin
Alterations of which neurotransmitter make occur in a client with acute mania?
norepinephrine
What clients show decreased levels of norepinephrine in the body?
client with depression
The nurse would expect a client with schizophrenia to have increased in watch neurotransmitter levels?
- Norepinephrine
- dopamine
What diagnosis produces used to detect alternate brain function involving interpretation of a brain functioning by color coded or grey shading
EEG mapping
The Primary Health care provider prescribes an EEG to A client with a psychiatric illness what is the purpose of prescribing an EEG?
To diagnose epilepsy
What structure in the brain plays a major role in vision reception and interpretation?
occipital lobe
Which client is at the highest risk for Huntington’s disease?
decreased levels of GAB A
May be viewed as an individual’s reaction to any change that requires an adjustment or response, which can be physical, mental, or emotional
Responses directed at stabilizing internal biological processes and psychological preservation of self-identity and self-esteem
Stress
Behavior that maintains the integrity of the individual
Viewed as positive and is correlated with a healthy response
Adaptive response
When behavior disrupts the integrity of the individual
Considered to be negative or unhealthy
Maladaptive
A biological, psychological, social, or chemical factor that causes physical or emotional tension
May contribute to the development of certain illnesses
Stressor
The state manifested by a specific syndrome that consists of all the nonspecifically induced changes within a biologic system
Hans Selye defined stress
Selye’s general adaptation syndrome what are the 3 stages
- Alarm reaction stage
- Stage of resistance
- Stage of exhaustion
Fight-or-flight syndrome
Alarm reaction stage
Uses physiological responses of first stage as a defense in attempt to adapt to the stressor
Stage of resistance
‒The body responds to prolonged exposure to a stressor.
‒Adaptive energy is depleted.
Diseases of adaptation may occur
- Stage of exhaustion
Symptoms occur in response to psychological or emotional stimuli just as they do to physical stimuli.
Symptoms of the Fight-or-flight syndrome
Psychological or emotional stressors are often not resolved as ______________ as physical stressors
rapidly
A 25-year-old man barely avoids a motor vehicle accident. His heart is pounding, his palms are sweaty, and his respirations are increased. This is an example of which stage of the general adaptation syndrome ?
Alarm reaction stage
Is said to occur when an individual’s physical or behavioral response to any change in his or her internal or external environment results in preservation of individual integrity or timely return to equilibrium
Adaptation
- This concept defines stress as an event that triggers an individual’s adaptive physiological and psychological responses.
- The event creates change in the life pattern of the individual, requires significant adjustment in lifestyle, and taxes available personal resources.
The change can be either positive or negative
Stress as an Environmental Event
Stress is measured by __________Recent Life Changes Questionnaire (RLCQ).
the Miller and Rahe
- Life changes questionnaires have been criticized.
- Do not consider the______________ of the event.
individual’s perception
Life changes questionnaires have been criticized. These types of instruments also fail to consider:
- Cultural variations
- Individual’s coping strategies
- Available support systems at the time when the life change occurs
A stimulus arising from the internal or external environment and perceived by the individual in a specific manner
Precipitating event
is an individual’s evaluation of the personal significance of the event or occurrence.
Cognitive appraisal
The cognitive response consists of a ________ appraisal and a _________ appraisal.
Primary and secondary
What are three types of primary appraisal
‒Irrelevant
‒Benign-positive
‒Stress appraisals include harm/loss, threat, and challenge.
An assessment of skills, resources, and knowledge that the person possesses to deal with the situation
Secondary appraisal
A student with an A average is to take an exam. The student is relaxed and says the exam is not of concern because a failing grade would not affect successful completion of the course. What has contributed to this student’s adaptation response to stress?
The student’s cognitive appraisal of the situation.
Strongly influence whether the response is adaptive or maladaptive
Predisposing factors
- Genetic influences
- Past experiences
- Existing conditions
Types of predisposing factors
As existing conditions (loss or lack of resources) exceed the person’s perception of adaptive capabilities, the individual not only experiences stress in the present but also becomes more vulnerable to the effects of stress in the future because of a “weaker resource reservoir to call on to meet future demand.”
Hobfoll’s conservation of resources theory
Occurs when an individual’s physical or behavioral response to any change in his or her internal or external environment results in disruption of individual integrity or in persistent disequilibrium
Maladaptation
Stress management is the use of ________ in response to stressful situations
coping strategies
- When they protect the individual from harm (or additional harm)
- Strengthen the individual’s ability to meet challenging situations
Coping strategies are adaptive
- Hippocrates theorized mental illness was caused by _______________
- Blood, black bile, yellow bile, and phlegm
- He called these body fluids humors.
irregularity in the interaction of four body fluids.
- During the Middle Ages, the association of mental illness with_________ continued to prevail in Europe.
witchcraft and the supernatural
Middle Eastern countries began to perceive mental illness as ____________
a medical problem
The first hospital in America to admit patients with mental illness was established in __________ in the middle of the 18th century.
Philadelphia
is often called the father of American psychiatry.
Benjamin Rush
This refers to an objective view of self, including knowledge and acceptance of strengths and limitations. The individual feels a strong sense of personal identity and security within his or her environment.
A Positive Attitude Toward Self
This indicator correlates with whether the individual successfully achieves the tasks associated with each level of development (see Erikson, in the on-line chapter, “Theoretical Models of Personality Development). With successful achievement in each level, the individual gains motivation for advancement to his or her highest potential.
Growth, Development, and the Ability to Achieve Self-actualization.
The focus here is on maintaining equilibrium or balance among various life processes. Integration includes the ability to adaptively respond to the environment and the development of a philosophy of life, both of which help the individual maintain a manageable anxiety level in response to stressful situations.
Integration
This refers to the individual’s ability to perform in an independent, self-directed manner. He or she makes choices and accepts responsibility for the outcomes.
Autonomy
Accurate reality perception is a positive indicator of mental health. This includes perception of the environment without distortion, as well as the capacity for empathy and social sensitivity—a respect and concern for the wants and needs of others
Perception of Reality
This indicator suggests that the individual has achieved a satisfactory role within the group, society, or environment, and is able to love and accept the love of others. When faced with life situations, the individual is able to strategize, make decisions, change, adjust, and adapt. Life offers satisfaction to the individual who has achieved environmental mastery
Environmental Mastery
This is an innate tendency to own space
Territoriality
This refers to the number of people within a given environmental space?
Density
this is the meaning by which various cultures use to space to communicate?
Distance
this is the closest distance that an individual allow between themselves and others?
Intimate distance
this is approximately 18 to 40 inches and is reserved for personal interactions such as close conversations with friends or colleagues
Personal distance
this is about four to 12 feet away from the body . Interactions at this distance include conversations with strangers and acquaintances?
social distance
this is one that exceeds 12 feet example for public speaking or yelling at someone
public distance
This is an evidence based patient centered style of communication that promotes behavior changes by guiding patient to explore their motivation for change and the advantages and disadvantages of their decision?
Motivational interviewing
This is a frame of reference around which an individual organizes knowledges about his or her world
attitude
these are abstract standards positive or negative that represent an individual's idea mode of conduct and ideal goals
Values
this is an idea that one holds true and it can take any of several forms
belief
These are the four types of beliefs
rational beliefs
irrational beliefs
faith
stereotype
Getting acquainted establishing __________is the primary task in relationship development
Rapport
This is proven reassurance that what is discussed will not be repeated outside the boundaries of the health care team
confidentiality
The attitude is nonjudgmental and the respect is unconditional in that it does not depend on the behavior of the patient to meet certain standards .
conditional positive regard
This focuses their thought process on specifics rather than generalizations in on immediate issues rather than eventual outcomes
concrete thinking
This is the ability to see beyond outward behavior and understand the situation from the patients point of view
empathy
This concept refers to the nurses ability to be open honest and real in interactions with the patient
genuineness
This occurs when a patient unconsciously displaces or transfers to the nurse feelings formed towards a person from his or her past
transference
this refers to the nurses behavior with emotional response to a patient in which the nurse transfers feelings often unconsciously about a past experience or people onto the patient
countertransference
This means acting in another's behalf as support or defender
advocate
This is the app that results in a person's genuine fear or apprehension that he or she will be touched without consent
assault
always capable of making independent choices
autonomy
This is the nonconsensual touching of another person
battery
Refers to one's duty to benefit or promote the good of others
Beneficence
Says that all decisions about right and wrong should be centered in love for God and in treating others with the same respect and dignity with which we would expect to be treated
Christian ethics
This protects the private and property rights of individuals and businesses
civil law This is dry from decisions made in previous cases /common law
Provide protection from conducting demeaning injurious two public welfare
criminal law
This happens when sharing information is detrimental to the client's reputation, the person sharing the information might be liable for what?
defamation of character
This is when a nurse is in a situation that requires the nurse to make choices between two equally unfavored alternatives.
ethical dilemma
This is espouse that's what is right and good is what is best for the individual making the decision
Ethical Egoism
This is the branch of philosophy that deals with system approach to distinguishing right from wrong behavior
ethics
this is the term applied to those principles when they refer to a concept within the scope of medicine, nursing, and allied health.
Bioethics
This is a behavior that maintains the integrity of the individual
adaptive response
A syndrome of physical symptoms that resolved from an individual's real or perceived notion that harm or dangers in imminent
fight or flight syndrome
The general biological reaction of the body to a stressful situation as described by Hans Selye. It occurs in three stages the alarm reaction stage , the stage of resistance, and the stage of exhaustion
General adaptation syndrome
The cellular process of a neuron that carries impulses away from cell body
Axon
The part of the neuron that contains the nucleus and is essential for continuing life of the neuron
cell body
a 24-hour biological rhythm controlled by pacemaker in the brain that sends messages to other systems in the body. This is influenced by various regulatory functions including the sleep wake cycle body temperature regulation pattern of activities such as eating and drinking and hormonal or neurotransmitter secretions
circadian rhythm
The cellular process of a neuron that carries impulses towards the cell body
dendrites
Refers to the complete set of genes present in an individual encoded in the DNA at the time of conception
Geno type
The physical manifestations of a particular genotype and designated by characters is better specifically
phenotype
A chemical that is stored in the Axon terminals of the presynaptic neuron. An electrical impulse through the neuron stimulates the release of this into the synaptic cleft , which in turn determines whether or not another electrical impulse will be generated
neurotransmitters
Molecules that are stimulated on the cell membrane of the postsynaptic neuron that will accept only molecules with complementary shapes . These complementarian molecules are specific to certain neurotransmitters that determine whether an electrical pulse will be excited or inhibited.
Receptor sites
the junction between two neurons. The small space between the Axon terminal of one neuron and the cell body or dendrite of another neuron is called synaptic cleft
synapse
the junction between two neurons. The small space between the Axon terminal of one neuron and the cell body or dendrite of another neuron is called synaptic cleft
synapse
What is acetylcholine function?
sleep, arousal, pain perception, movement, memory
What kind of neurotransmitter is acetylcholine
Cholinergic
Decreased levels of acetylcholine are found in these diseases ?
Alzheimer, Hutchington, Parkinson
Increased levels of acetylcholine are found in these diseases?
Depression (2)
What kind of neurotransmitter is Norepinephrine, dopamine, Serotonin and histamine?
Monoamine
What kind of neurotransmitter is Gamma-aminobutyric acid, Glycine, Glutamate and aspartate?
Amino Acid
What is the function of norepinephrine?
mood, cognition, perception, locomotion, cardiovascular function, and sleep and arousal
Decreased levels of it norepinephrine are found in these diseases
depression (1)
Increased levels of norepinephrine are found in these diseases?
Mania, anxiety state and schizophrenia
what is the function of dopamine?
Movement and coordination, emotions, volunteer judgment, release of prolactin
increase levels of dopamine are found in these diseases?
Mania and schizophrenia
decrease levels of dopamine are found in these diseases?
Parkinson's and depression
What is the function of serotonin?
Sleep, arousal, libido, appetite, mood, aggression, pain perception, coordination, and judgment
increased levels of serotonin are found in nice disease
anxiety states
Decreased levels of serotonin are found in this disease?
Depression (3)
What is the function of histamine?
Wakefulness, pain sensation and inflammatory response
decrease levels of histamine are found in people with this disease?
Depression (4)
increased levels of histamine are found in people with These diseases?
Sleep disorder, anxiety, Alzheimer's, and psychosis
What kind of neurotransmitter is gamma-aminobutyric acid, Glycine, glutamate, aspartate and D-serine.
Amino acids
what is the function of Gamma-Aminobutyric acid?
Slowing the functions of body activity
you will find decreased levels of Gamma-Aminobutyric acid in these diseases?
Huntington,pink lady disorder ,schizophrenia and various forms of the epilepsy
The feeling of discomfort and apprehension related to a fear of impending danger
Anxiety
What are the levels of anxiety ?
mild anxiety, modern anxiety trauma severe anxiety, panic
a variance of behaviors adapted chins response occurs at each level anxiety
Behavior adaptation response to anxiety
individuals employ any number of coping behaviors that satisfy their needs for comfort
mild anxiety
a level of anxiety increase says the strength of the ego is tested and the energy is mobilized to confront the threat
mild to moderate anxiety
The client hates her mother because of a childhood neglect. The nurse determines which client statement represents then the use of defense mechanism has a reaction formation?
I have a very wonderful mother whom I love very much
Anxiety at this level that remains unresolved over an extended period of time can contribute to a number of psychological disorders
moderate to severe anxiety
Extended periods of severe repressed severe anxiety can result in psychoneurotic behavior patterns
severe anxiety
a psychiatric disturbance characterized by excessive anxiety that is expressed directly or alternate through defense mechanisms can appear with symptoms such as obsession compulsive phobia or sexual dysfunction
neurosis
Disorder in which the characteristic feature are symptoms of anxiety and avoidance behavior
Anxiety disorder
the characteristic feature are physical symptoms for which there is no evidence of organic pathology
somatic symptoms disorder
The characteristics feature is a disturbance in the usual integrated functions of consciousness, memory, identity or perceptions of the environment
dissociative disorder
At this extreme level individual is not capable of processing what is happening in the environment and may lose contact with reality
panic anxiety
is defined as a significant thought disturbance in which reality testing is impaired, results in delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, or catatonic behavior
psychosis
these are common symptoms of people with psychosis
exhibit minimal distress, are unaware of their behavior is maladapted, unaware of psychological problem, exhibits a flight from reality in less stressful world or one in which they are attempting to adapt
is a subject feeling of sorrow and sadness accompanied by emotional physical and social response to the loss of a loved one or poor thing
grief
This is the period of characteristic emotions and behaviors is called_________the characteristics are feeling the sadness guilt , anger , helplessness, hopelessness and despair
Mourning
What are Kubler Ross's five stages of grief
denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
This is the stage of shock and disbelief
denial
this is the stage of envy and resentment toward individuals not affected by the loss are common
Anger
name bargain is made with God in an attempt to reverse or postpone the loss
bargaining
the sense of loss is intense , and the feeling of sadness and depression prevail
depression
the final stage brings a feeling of peace and regarding the loss that has occurred
acceptance
Experiencing the grief process before the actual loss occurs
anticipatory grief
length of the grief process is entirely individual may last from a few weeks to a year influenced by the number of factors
resolution
This can often lengthen the grieving process
guilt
anticipatory grieving may _______ the grieving response
shorten
if grief accumulates it can become
bereavement overload
this is When the process is resolved. individual can regain a sense of organization redefines his or her life in the absence of the loss and pursues new interests and relationship
morning
What are the three types of grief ?
prolonged, delayed or inhibited, distorted
This occurs when an individual is not able to satisfy actually processed through the stages of grief to achieve a resolution. usually occurs when an individual becomes fixed in their denial or anger stage of the grief process
maladaptive grief response
characterized by an intense preoccupation with memories of the last entity for many years after the loss occurred
prolonged grief
individual has become fixed in a denial stage of grief process
delayed or inhibited
the individual is fixed in the anger stage of grieving. May accumulate in pathological depression
distorted
A window of 23 years has not removed any of her husband's possessions including the slippers beside their bed. Which pathological grief response is being exhibited by this client
prolonged grief response
The lymph system consists of portions of the_____ and _____
Cerebrum, diencephalon
The system is associated with feelings of fear and anxiety, anger, rage and aggression, love, joy, and hope
Lymph
A nursing student is learning about the human lymph system. which student statement demonstrates that teaching about the functions of the limbic system have been effective?
the limbic system helps stabilize emotional behavior
A client is brought into the emergency room department and diagnosed with panic levels of anxiety. Which biological system domination would be responsible for this diagnosis?
The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system
The study of the interaction between the nervous system and the endocrine system, and the effects of various hormones on cognitive, emotional, and behavioral function.
Neuroendocrinology
What are the hormones of the posterior pituitary?
anti-diuretic hormone and oxytocin
what are the hormones of the anterior pituitary
Growth hormone, thyroid stimulating hormone, adrenocorticotropic hormone, prolactin, melanocyte stimulating hormone and Gonadotrophic
What are the 6 indicator that reflection of mental health?
- Positive attitude toward self .Growth, development, and the ability to achieve self-actualization, Integration, Autonomy, Perception of reality, Environmental mastery
What Are Common characteristics of people with neuroses
- Aware they are experiencing distress
- Aware their behaviors are maladaptive
- Unaware of any possible psychological causes of the distress
- Feel helpless to change their situation
- Experience no loss of contact with reality
The study of the biological foundations of cognitive, emotional, and behavioral processes
Psychobiology
What kind of neurotransmitter is Opioid peptides, substance P, somatostatin
Neuropeptides
What is the Role of circadian rhythms in psychopathology
- Association of depression with increased secretion of melatonin during darkness hours
- Symptoms that occur in the premenstrual cycle
1.An operating room nurse asks a psychiatric nurse, “How can you work with the mentally ill day in and day out?” The psychiatric nurse replies, “It’s just the right thing to do.” The psychiatric nurse is operating from which ethical framework ?
Kantianism
Do unto others as you would have them do unto you.
Christian ethics
Do good and avoid evil.
Human knowledge of the difference between good and evil directs decision-making.
Natural law theories
Decisions are based on what is best for the individual making the decision.
Ethical egoism
is an ethical theory that promotes action based on the end result that produces the most good (happiness) for the most people.
Utilitarianism
suggests that decisions and actions are bound by a sense of duty.
Kantianism
Abstaining from negative acts toward another
Includes acting carefully to avoid harm
Nonmaleficence
Principle based on the notion of a hypothetical social contract between free, equal, and rational persons
Justice
Principle that refers to one’s duty to always be truthful
Veracity
What are steps in the model for making ethical decision
1.Assessment
2.Problem identification
3.Plan
4.Implementation
5.Evaluation
Anyone admitted to the hospital has the right to treatment.
The right to treatment
Patients have the right to refuse treatment unless immediate intervention is required to prevent death or serious harm to the patient or another person.
The right to refuse treatment (including medication)
- The right to the least_________ treatment alternative
restrictive
If a client can be ____________ in an outpatient setting, they should not be hospitalized.
adequately treated
If hospitalized, the patient should not be sedated, restrained, or secluded unless less restrictive steps were ______________
unsuccessful.
The_____________defines the legal parameters of professional and practical nursing.
Nurse Practice Act
What are 2 types of laws in Nurse Practice Act
- Statutory law
- Common law
What are some of the Confidentiality and right to privacy
- Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
- Doctrine of privileged communication
What are 2 of the exception of the Confidentiality and right to privacy
A duty to warn
Suspected child or elder abuse
What is informed consent
1.Knowledge
2.Competency
Free will
- generally refers to a set of leather straps used to restrain the extremities of an individual whose behavior is out of control and who poses an immediate risk to the physical safety and psychological well-being of him or herself and others.
Restraints
Restraints are never to be used as _______________________
punishment or for the convenience of staff
has specific standards regarding the use of seclusion and restraints
the Joint commission
The deliberate and unauthorized confinement of a person within fixed limits by the use of threat or force. A nurse may be charged with false imprisonment by placing a patient in restraints against his or her will in a non-emergency situation.
false imprisonment.
Permission granted to a physician by a client to perform a therapeutic procedure, prior to which information about the procedure has been presented to the client with adequate time given for consideration about the pros and cons.
informed consent.
An ethical principle reflecting that all individuals should be treated equally and fairly.
Justice
An action with which an individual may be charged for sharing with another individual, in writing, information that is detrimental to someone’s reputation
Libel
The failure of one rendering professional services to exercise that degree of skill and learning commonly applied under all the circumstances in the community by the average prudent reputable member of the profession, with the result of injury, loss, or damage to the recipient of those services or to those entitled to rely upon them.
Malpractice
Conduct that results from serious critical thinking about how individuals ought to treat others; reflects respect for human life, freedom, justice, or confidentiality.
moral behavior.
The failure to do something that a reasonable person, guided by those considerations that ordinarily regulate human affairs, would do or doing something that a prudent and reasonable person would not do.
Negligence
A doctrine common to most states that grants certain privileges under which health-care professionals may refuse to reveal information about and communications with clients.
privileged communication.
That which an individual is entitled (by ethical, legal, or moral standards) to have, or to do, or to receive from others within the limits of the law.
right
An action with which an individual may be charged for orally sharing information that is detrimental to a person’s reputation.
Slander
‒The inability of the general population to understand the motivation behind the behavior
incomprehensibility
‒The “normality” of behavior is determined by the culture.
Cultural relativity
Unlawful intercourse between a person who is over the age of consent and a person who is under the age of consent. Legal age of consent varies from state to state. An individual can be arrested for statutory rape even when the interaction has occurred between consenting individuals.
statutory rape
The violation of a civil law in which an individual has been wronged. In a tort action, one party asserts that wrongful conduct on the part of the other has caused harm, and compensation for harm suffered is sought.
Tort
A process of self-discovery by which people identify their personal values and their value rankings. This process increases awareness about why individuals behave in certain ways.
Values clarification
An ethical principle that refers to one’s duty to always be truthful.
Veracity
A symptom of some mental illnesses, such as schizophrenia, in which the individual is manifesting overt symptoms of illness but is unaware of the presence of symptoms/unaware that there is anything wrong.
Anosognosia
An ego defense mechanism in which an individual covers up a real or perceived weakness by emphasizing a trait that one considers more desirable.
Compensation
Feelings that are transferred from one target to another that is considered less threatening or neutral.
Displacement
An attempt to increase self-worth by acquiring certain attributes and characteristics of an individual one admires.
Identification
An attempt to avoid expressing actual emotions associated with a stressful situation by using the intellectual processes of logic, reasoning, and analysis.
intellectualization
The beliefs and values of another individual are internalized and symbolically become a part of the self to the extent that the feeling of separateness or distinctness is lost.
introjection
The separation of a thought or a memory from the feeling, tone, or emotions associated with it (sometimes called emotional isolation).
isolation
Attributing to another person feelings or impulses unacceptable to oneself.
Projection
Attempting to make excuses or formulate logical reasons to justify unacceptable feelings or behaviors.
Rationalization
Preventing unacceptable or undesirable thoughts or behaviors from being expressed by exaggerating opposite thoughts or types of behaviors.
Reaction formation
A retreat to an earlier level of development and the comfort measures associated with that level of functioning.
Regression
The involuntary blocking of unpleasant feelings and experiences from one’s awareness
Repression
The rechanneling of personally and/ or socially unacceptable drives or impulses into activities that are more tolerable and constructive.
Sublimation
The voluntary blocking from one’s awareness of unpleasant feelings and experiences.
suppression
A mechanism used to symbolically negate or cancel out a previous action or experience that one finds intolerable.
undoing
Syndrome of symptoms characterized by bizarre facial and tongue movements, a stiff neck, and difficulty swallowing. It may occur as an adverse effect of long-term therapy with some antipsychotic medications.
tardive dyskinesia
A syndrome that is an adverse reaction to serotonergic medications. It may range from mild to severe and is potentially fatal. Symptoms may include significantly elevated temperature, agitation, muscle rigidity or twitching, sweating, irregular heartbeat, and seizures.
Serotonin Syndrome
Ejaculation of the seminal fluid backward into the bladder; may occur as a side effect of antipsychotic medications.
Retrograde Ejaculation
rolonged painful penile erection, may occur as an adverse effect of some antidepressant medications, particularly trazodone.
Priapism
An attack of involuntary deviation and fixation of the eyeballs, usually in the upward position. It may last for several minutes or hours and may occur as an extrapyramidal side effect of some antipsychotic medications.
oculogyric crisis.
A rare but potentially fatal complication of treatment with neuroleptic drugs. Symptoms include severe muscle rigidity, high fever, tachycardia, fluctuations in blood pressure, diaphoresis, and rapid deterioration of mental status to stupor and coma.
neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS).
A potentially life-threatening syndrome that results when an individual taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) eats a product high in tyramine. Symptoms include severe occipital headache, palpitations, nausea and vomiting, nuchal rigidity, fever, sweating, marked increase in blood pressure, chest pain, and coma. Foods with tyramine include aged cheeses or other aged, overripe, and fermented foods; broad beans; pickled herring; beef or chicken liver; preserved meats; beer and wine; yeast products; chocolate; caffeinated drinks; canned figs; sour cream; yogurt; soy sauce; and some overthe-counter cold medications and diet pills.
hypertensive crisis.
Enlargement of the breasts in men; may be a side effect of some antipsychotic medications.
Gynecomastia
A variety of responses that originate outside the pyramidal tracts and in the basal ganglion of the brain. Symptoms may include tremors, chorea, dystonia, akinesia, akathisia, and others. May occur as a side effect of some antipsychotic medications.
extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
Involuntary muscular movements (spasms) of the face, arms, legs, and neck; may occur as an extrapyramidal side effect of some antipsychotic medications.
Dystonia
Cessation of the menses; may be a side effect of some antipsychotic medications and may be a symptom in anorexia nervosa.
Amenorrhea
Muscular weakness or a loss or partial loss of muscle movement; a type of extrapyramidal side effect associated with some antipsychotic medications
Akinesia
Restlessness; an urgent need for movement; a type of extrapyramidal side effect associated with some antipsychotic medications.
Akathisia
Extremely low levels of white blood cells. Symptoms include sore throat, fever, and malaise. This may be a side effect of long-term therapy with some antipsychotic medications.
Agranulocytosis