Microbio Exam 4 Flashcards

1) All of the following are true regarding African trypanosomiasis EXCEPT

A) it is also known as "sleeping sickness."

B) all subspecies of Trypanosoma brucei have multiple hosts.

C) it is transmitted by the tsetse fly.

D) death ultimately occurs without proper treatment.

E) Trypanosoma brucei gambiense is the more common cause of disease.

2) Bacterial encephalitis and meningitis are difficult to treat because

A) no medications exist for treatment of these infections.

B) antibiotics damage nervous tissue.

C) many antibiotics cannot penetrate the blood-brain barrier.

D) the infections move along peripheral nerves.

E) it is very difficult to determine the causative microbe.

3) All of the following organisms cause meningitis EXCEPT

A) Neisseria meningitidis.

B) Haemophilus influenzae.

C) Cryptococcus neoformans.

D) Streptococcus pneumoniae.

E) Mycobacterium leprae.

4) All of the following organisms are transmitted via the respiratory route EXCEPT

A) Neisseria meningitidis.

B) Haemophilus influenzae.

C) Listeria monocytogenes.

D) Cryptococcus neoformans.

E) None of the answers is correct; all of these organisms are transmitted by the respiratory route.

5) Which of the following statements about rabies is FALSE?

A) It is caused by Lyssavirus.

B) Hydrophobia is associated with the disease.

C) Most infections in the U.S. are the result of bites from infected dogs.

D) Diagnosis is based on immunofluorescent techniques.

E) Average incubation period is 30 to 50 days after initial infection.

6) The symptoms of tetanus are due to

A) endospore formation.

B) systemic infection.

C) sustained relaxation of muscles.

D) tetanospasmin.

E) inflammation.

7) All of the following diseases are caused by arbovirus EXCEPT

A) St. Louis encephalitis.

B) eastern equine encephalitis.

C) West Nile encephalitis.

D) primary amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM).

E) None of the answers is correct; all of these diseases are caused by arbovirus.

8) A 30-year-old woman was hospitalized after she experienced convulsions. On examination, she was alert and oriented and complained of a fever, headache, and stiff neck. Any of the following organisms could be responsible for her symptoms EXCEPT

A) Clostridium botulinum.

B) Listeria monocytogenes.

C) Haemophilus influenza.

D) Streptococcus pneumoniae.

E) Any of these organisms could be the causative agent.

9) The most effective control of mosquito-borne disease is

A) treatment of infected humans.

B) treatment of infected wild animals.

C) elimination of the mosquito population.

D) avoidance of endemic areas.

E) treatment of uninfected humans.

10) Initial treatment for tetanus in an unimmunized person with a puncture wound is

A) tetanus toxoid.

B) tetanus immune globulin.

C) penicillin.

D) none; no action is necessary.

E) debridement.

11) Initial treatment for tetanus in a fully immunized person with a puncture wound is

A) tetanus toxoid.

B) tetanus immune globulin.

C) penicillin.

D) DTaP.

E) debridement.

12) The most common route of central nervous system invasion by pathogens is through

A) the skin.

B) the circulatory system.

C) the gastrointestinal system.

D) the parenteral route.

E) direct penetration into nerves.

13) A pathologist detects Negri bodies while examining a brain section taken at autopsy. What was the cause of death?

A) rabies

B) meningococcal meningitis

C) eastern equine encephalitis

D) Hansen's disease

E) poliomyelitis

14) Encephalitis is more common in the summer months because

A) pathogens are present in swimming pools and lakes.

B) ameba populations increase in swimming pools.

C) ticks are encountered while hiking in the woods.

D) mosquito populations increase.

E) people encounter more bats during warm summer evenings.

15) Each of the following is caused by prions EXCEPT

A) sheep scrapie.

B) kuru.

C) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.

D) bovine spongiform encephalopathy.

E) rabies.

16) All of the following are true of chronic fatigue syndrome EXCEPT

A) it may have a genetic component.

B) it is also known as myalgic encephalomyelitis.

C) it is a psychological disorder.

D) it often begins with flu-like symptoms that do not go away.

E) it may be triggered by a viral infection.

17) A physician diagnoses a patient with lepromatous Hansen's disease. All of the following pertain to the patient EXCEPT

A) disfiguring nodules form all over the body.

B) the disease has progressed from the tuberculoid stage.

C) a skin biopsy will be taken to aid diagnosis.

D) treatment will include injections of penicillin.

E) infection probably occurred as a result of prolonged contact with another infected individual.

18) Arboviruses cause ________ and are transmitted by ________.

A) meningitis; bee stings

B) meningitis; mosquitoes

C) encephalitis; dog bites

D) encephalitis; mosquitoes

E) both meningitis and encephalitis; mosquitoes

19) Naegleria fowleri meningoencephalitis is commonly acquired by

A) exposure to bird droppings.

B) mosquito bites.

C) swimming in warm ponds or streams.

D) ingestion of water contaminated with fecal material.

E) exposure to body fluids of a contaminated individual.

20) Which one of the following causes the most severe illness in humans, with a mortality rate of 30 percent?

A) western equine encephalitis

B) eastern equine encephalitis

C) St. Louis encephalitis

D) California encephalitis

E) West Nile encephalitis

21) Which of the following is/are a free-living amoeba that can cause encephalitis?

A) Acanthamoeba

B) Naegleria

C) Entamoeba

D) Naegleria and Acanthamoeba

E) Entamoeba and Naegleria

22) Microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid reveals gram-positive rods. What is the organism?

A) Haemophilus

B) Listeria

C) Naegleria

D) Neisseria

E) Streptococcus

23) Which of the following statements about sepsis is FALSE?

A) Symptoms include fever and decreased blood pressure.

B) Lymphangitis may occur.

C) It can be treated with antibiotics.

D) It usually is caused by gram-positive bacteria.

E) It may be aggravated by antibiotics.

24) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

A) subacute bacterial endocarditis — alpha-hemolytic streptococci

B) acute bacterial endocarditis — Staphylococcus aureus

C) pericarditis — Streptococcus pyogenes

D) puerperal sepsis — Staphylococcus aureus

E) Burkitt's lymphoma — Epstein-Barr virus

25) Which of the following is NOT a recognized form of anthrax?

A) cutaneous

B) inhalationial

C) septic

D) gastrointestinal

E) None of the answers are correct; all of these are recognized forms of anthrax.

26) Which of the following is NOT typically treated with penicillin?

A) serious wounds at risk for gas gangrene

B) tularemia

C) patients at risk for rheumatic fever

D) puerperal sepsis

E) rat-bite fever

27) Which of the following statements about tularemia is FALSE?

A) It is caused by Francisella tularensis.

B) The most common reservoir is rabbits.

C) It may be transmitted by arthropods.

D) It may be transmitted by direct contact.

E) It occurs only in California.

28) Which of the following is a symptom of brucellosis?

A) gastroenteritis

B) relapsing fever

C) undulant fever

D) pneumonia

E) jaundice

29) Which of the following is NOT transmitted in raw milk?

A) toxoplasmosis

B) anthrax

C) brucellosis

D) listeriosis

E) All of these can be transmitted in raw milk.

30) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Bacillus anthracis?

A) is aerobic

B) is gram-positive

C) forms endospores

D) found in soil

E) produces endotoxins

31) The symptoms of gas gangrene are due to all of the following EXCEPT

A) microbial fermentation.

B) necrotizing exotoxins.

C) proteolytic enzymes.

D) hyaluronidase.

E) endocarditis

32) Which of the following bacterial infections CANNOT be transmitted by dog or cat bites?

A) Pasteurella multocida

B) Streptobacillus

C) Bartonella henselae

D) Fusobacterium

E) None of the answers is correct; all of these bacterial infections can be transmitted by dog or cat bites.

33) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

A) malaria — Anopheles (mosquito)

B) dengue — Aedes (mosquito)

C) epidemic typhus — Pediculus (louse)

D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever — Dermacentor (tick)

E) encephalitis — Ixodes (tick)

34) Unsanitary and crowded conditions increase the incidence of all of the following diseases EXCEPT

A) plague.

B) epidemic typhus.

C) endemic murine typhus.

D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

E) relapsing fever.

35) Which of the following statements about toxoplasmosis is FALSE?

A) It is caused by a protozoan.

B) The reservoir is cats.

C) It is transmitted by the gastrointestinal route.

D) It is a severe illness in adults.

E) It can be congenital.

36) Which of the following pairs does NOT apply to Chagas' disease?

A) causative agent — Trypanosoma cruzi

B) vector — kissing bug

C) reservoir — rodents

D) diagnosis of acute phase — serological tests for antibodies

E) treatment — nifurtimox

37) Which of the following is NOT caused by a bacterium?

A) epidemic typhus

B) tickborne typhus

C) malaria

D) plague

E) relapsing fever

38) A patient presents with inflammation of the heart valves, fever, malaise, and subcutaneous nodules at joints. The recommended treatment is

A) supportive care.

B) streptomycin.

C) chloroquine.

D) hyperbaric chamber.

E) praziquantel.

39) Which of the following statements about puerperal sepsis is FALSE?

A) It is transmitted from mother to fetus.

B) It is caused by health care personnel.

C) It begins as a focal infection.

D) It is a complication of abortion or childbirth.

E) Its frequency of occurrence has decreased because of antibiotics and aseptic techniques.

40) Which of the following statements about schistosomiasis is FALSE?

A) The cercariae penetrate human skin.

B) They symptoms are caused by immune reactions to the eggs shed in the human host.

C) The intermediate host is an aquatic snail.

D) It is caused by a roundworm.

E) The female worm lives in a groove that runs down the body of the male.

41) Which of the following statements about rheumatic fever is FALSE?

A) It is a complication of a group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection.

B) It is an inflammation of the heart.

C) It is an inflammation of the joints.

D) It is rarely fatal, even when untreated.

E) The incidence has declined in the last ten years.

42) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

A) Rickettsia — intracellular parasite

B) Brucella — gram-negative aerobic rods

C) Francisella — gram-positive facultatively anaerobic pleomorphic bacillus

D) Bacillus — gram-positive endospore-forming rods

E) None of the pairs is mismatched.

43) The lower respiratory tract is protected by all of the following EXCEPT

A) competition with the normal flora of the lungs.

B) IgA antibodies.

C) mucous secretions.

D) the ciliary escalator.

E) alveolar macrophages.

44) Which of the following is mismatched?

A) pharyngitis — sore throat

B) laryngitis — voice loss

C) epiglottitis — sore throat

D) sinusitis — headache and nasal mucous

E) otitis media — earache

45) Members of the group A streptococci (GAS) cause all of the following EXCEPT

A) strep throat.

B) scarlet fever.

C) rheumatic fever.

D) pharyngitis.

E) epiglottitis.

46) Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of influenza?

A) fever

B) chills

C) headache

D) diarrhea

E) muscle aches

47) Which of the following is mismatched?

A) Corynebacterium — gram-positive rod

B) Mycobacterium — acid-fast rod

C) Mycoplasma — gram-positive pleomorphic rod

D) Bordetella — gram-negative pleomorphic rod

E) Haemophilus — gram-negative rod

48) Which of the following microorganisms causes symptoms most like tuberculosis?

A) Histoplasma

B) Coccidioides

C) Legionella

D) Mycoplasma

E) Influenza virus

49) All of the following can lead to a positive tuberculin skin test EXCEPT

A) vaccination.

B) current tuberculosis infection.

C) previous tuberculosis infection.

D) immunity to tuberculosis.

E) being near someone with tuberculosis.

50) Which of the following diseases is NOT correctly matched to its vaccine?

A) tuberculosis — toxoid

B) whooping cough — heat-killed bacteria

C) diphtheria — toxoid

D) influenza — viruses grown in embryonated eggs

E) pneumococcal pneumonia — capsular polysaccharides

51) Which of the following diseases has a cutaneous form, especially in individuals over 30 years of age?

A) coccidioidomycosis

B) diphtheria

C) legionellosis

D) scarlet fever

E) psittacosis

52) Which of the following requires treatment with both antibiotics and antitoxins?

A) diphtheria

B) tuberculosis

C) whooping cough

D) scarlet fever

E) psittacosis

53) Which of the following causes opportunistic infections in AIDS patients?

A) Pneumocystis

B) Aspergillus

C) Rhizopus

D) Mucor

E) All of the answers are correct.

54) All of the following are true of the common cold EXCEPT

A) it is caused by rhinoviruses and coronaviruses.

B) it is transmitted via aerosols and contact.

C) early treatment will drastically reduce the disease symptoms.

D) complications include laryngitis and otitis media.

E) the duration of symptoms is approximately one week.

55) The most effective means of preventing influenza is

A) annual vaccination.

B) isolation of carriers.

C) vector control.

D) pasteurization of milk.

E) administration of amantadine.

56) All of the following are used as first-line drugs for treating tuberculosis EXCEPT

A) ethambutol.

B) isoniazid.

C) fluoroquinolones.

D) rifampin.

E) pyrazinamide.

57) Which of the following statements regarding tuberculosis is FALSE?

A) Nearly 1/3 of the world's population is infected with tuberculosis.

B) Nearly 1/3 of the world's population shows symptoms of tuberculosis.

C) It is responsible for nearly 2 million deaths per year.

D) At least 1/3 of those who are TB-positive are also HIV-positive.

E) Treatment requires at least six months of antibiotic therapy.

58) A patient has fever, difficulty breathing, chest pains, fluid in the alveoli, and a positive tuberculin skin test. Gram-positive cocci are isolated from the sputum. The patient most likely has

A) tuberculosis.

B) influenza.

C) pneumococcal pneumonia.

D) mycoplasmal pneumonia.

E) the common cold.

59) Which of the following is responsible for epidemics of respiratory disease in infants?

A) rhinovirus

B) adenovirus

C) respiratory syncytial virus

D) influenza

E) Mycoplasma

60) Legionella is transmitted by

A) airborne transmission.

B) foodborne transmission.

C) person-to-person contact.

D) fomites.

E) vectors.

61) It is common for a normal, healthy individual to carry potentially pathogenic organisms in their upper respiratory tract.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

62) Most cases of sinusitis and otitis media will not resolve unless they are treated with antibiotics.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

63) The symptoms of diphtheria are due to an exotoxin that blocks proteins synthesis in host cells.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

64) The most common causative agent of bacterial pneumonia is Streptococcus pneumoniae.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

65) A positive tuberculosis skin test indicates that the patient has active tuberculosis.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

66) Vaccination with the influenza vaccine confers lifelong immunity to influenza virus.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

67) Coccidioides immitis causes Valley fever, a disease that is endemic to the Mississippi Valley.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

68) Mycoplasma pneumoniae causes atypical pneumonia, also known as "walking pneumonia."

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

69) Risks for Q fever include contact with infected cattle and drinking unpasteurized milk.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

70) Infections with Legionella pneumophila are usually transmitted via aerosols from contaminated air conditioning systems, showers, and humidifiers.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

71) Which of the following is directly involved in the initiation of dental caries?

A) sucrose

B) lysozyme

C) lactic acid

D) crevicular fluid

E) dentin

72) Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea is usually preceded by

A) eating contaminated food.

B) a blood transfusion.

C) extended use of antibiotics.

D) improper food storage.

E) travel to an underdeveloped country.

73) Which of the following statements about salmonellosis is FALSE?

A) It is a bacterial infection.

B) Severity of disease depends on number of organisms ingested.

C) A healthy carrier state exists.

D) The mortality rate is high.

E) It is often associated with poultry products.

74) Disease-causing exotoxins are produced by all of the following organisms EXCEPT

A) Clostridium perfringens.

B) Vibrio cholerae.

C) Shigella dysenteriae.

D) Staphylococcus aureus.

E) Clostridium botulinum.

75) Which one of the following diseases of the gastrointestinal system is transmitted by the respiratory route?

A) staphylococcal enterotoxicosis

B) mumps

C) Vibrio gastroenteritis

D) bacillary dysentery

E) traveler's diarrhea

76) Which of the following helminthic diseases is a common infestation found in the southeastern United States?

A) Enterobius vermicularis

B) Ascaris lumbricoides

C) Taenia saginata

D) Trichuris trichiura

E) Echinococcus granulosus

77) Poultry products are a likely source of infection by

A) Helicobacter pylori.

B) Salmonella enterica.

C) Vibrio cholerae.

D) Shigella

E) Clostridium perfringens.

78) All of the following infections can result from drinking contaminated water EXCEPT

A) Cyclospora

B) giardiasis.

C) trichinellosis.

D) cholera.

E) cryptosporidiosis.

79) Which of the following organisms feeds on red blood cells?

A) Giardia lamblia

B) Escherichia coli

C) Taenia

D) Vibrio parahaemolyticus

E) Entamoeba histolytica

80) In humans, beef tapeworm infestations are acquired by ingesting

A) the eggs of Taenia saginata.

B) segments of Taenia solium

C) water contaminated with Diphyllobothrium latum

D) cysticerci of Taenia saginata in undercooked meat.

E) cysticerci of Taenia solium in undercooked meat.

81) Which of the following statements about staphylococcal food poisoning is FALSE?

A) It is caused by ingesting an enterotoxin.

B) It can be prevented by adequate refrigeration of food.

C) It can be prevented by heating foods to 50°C for 15 minutes.

D) It is treated by replacing water and electrolytes.

E) It is characterized by rapid onset and short duration of symptoms.

82) The most common cause of traveler's diarrhea is

A) Shigella

B) Salmonella enterica.

C) Giardia lamblia.

D) Escherichia coli.

E) Campylobacter jejuni.

83) Acute gastroenteritis that occurs after an incubation period of two to three days and commonly affects children is probably caused by

A) Giardia.

B) rotavirus.

C) Salmonella.

D) Staphylococcus aureus.

E) Trichinella.

84) Which of the following is mismatched?

A) hydatid disease — humans are the definitive host

B) Taenia infestation — humans are the definitive host

C) trichinellosis — humans eat larva of parasite

D) pinworm infestation — humans ingest parasite's eggs

E) hookworm infestation — parasite bores through skin

85) Thorough cooking of food will prevent all of the following EXCEPT

A) trichinellosis.

B) beef tapeworm.

C) staphylococcal food poisoning.

D) salmonellosis.

E) shigellosis.

86) Most of the normal microbiota of the digestive system are found in the

A) mouth.

B) stomach.

C) stomach and small intestine.

D) small intestine and large intestine.

E) accessory structures.

87) Gums bleeding while brushing one's teeth is most commonly associated with

A) halitosis.

B) cavities.

C) gingivitis.

D) periodontitis.

E) trench mouth.

88) Which of the following causes inflammation of the liver?

A) Salmonella enterica

B) Shigella

C) hepatitis A virus

D) Vibrio cholerae

E) Escherichia coli

89) "Rice water stools" are characteristic of

A) salmonellosis.

B) cholera.

C) bacillary dysentery.

D) amebic dysentery.

E) tapeworm infestation.

90) Epidemics related to bacterial infection of the digestive system are typically caused by

A) biological vectors.

B) contaminated food and water.

C) unpasteurized milk.

D) the respiratory route.

E) exposure to contaminated soil.

91) Many bacterial infections of the lower digestive tract are treated with

A) antitoxin.

B) penicillin.

C) water and electrolytes.

D) quinacrine.

E) thorough cooking.

92) Dental plaque is an example of

A) a pellicle.

B) a biofilm.

C) gingivitis.

D) dentin.

E) tooth enamel.

93) Which of the following correctly lists the stages of tooth decay?

A) plaque accumulation, destruction of enamel, advancement of decay through enamel, decay in dentin, decay in tooth pulp

B) decay in dentin, plaque accumulation, destruction of enamel, advancement of decay through enamel, decay in tooth pulp

C) plaque accumulation, destruction of enamel, decay in tooth pulp, advancement of decay through enamel, decay in dentin

D) destruction of enamel, advancement of decay through enamel, plaque accumulation, decay in dentin, decay in tooth pulp

E) destruction of enamel, plaque accumulation, advancement of decay through enamel, decay in dentin, decay in tooth pulp

94) Campylobacter gastroenteritis is the leading cause of foodborne illness in the United States.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

95) Dental caries can also be referred to as periodontal disease.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

96) Bacterial infections, but not intoxications, can cause diarrhea.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

97) An outbreak of viral gastroenteritis occurs in a pediatrics ward. Rotavirus is the most likely causative agent.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

98) Aflatoxin poisoning is associated with liver cancer.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

99) Approximately 30 percent of the body's immune system is located in the intestinal tract.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

100) Lactic acid, an end product of fructose fermentation, causes breakdown of tooth enamel and, eventually, cavities.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

101) Gastroenteritis due to ingestion of food contaminated with Staphylococcus aureus is due to intoxication by enterotoxins.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

102) EHEC is a major cause of diarrhea in developing countries and may result in the death of small children.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

103) H. pylori is able to survive the acidic environment of the stomach as a result of adaptations that allow it to increase the pH of the immediate environment.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

104) Normal microbiota of the adult vagina consist primarily of

A) Lactobacillus.

B) Streptococcus.

C) Mycobacterium.

D) Neisseria.

E) Candida.

105) Cystitis is most often caused by

A) Escherichia coli.

B) Leptospira interrogans.

C) Candida albicans.

D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

106) Pyelonephritis may result from

A) urethritis.

B) cystitis.

C) ureteritis.

D) systemic infections.

E) All of the answers are correct.

107) Which of the following is NOT primarily a sexually transmitted infection (STI)?

A) lymphogranuloma venereum

B) genital herpes

C) gonorrhea

D) chancroid

E) trichomoniasis

108) Which of the following is treated with penicillin?

A) genital herpes

B) genital warts

C) candidiasis

D) syphilis

E) trichomoniasis

109) All of the following can cause congenital infection or infections of the newborn EXCEPT

A) syphilis.

B) gonorrhea.

C) nongonococcal urethritis.

D) genital herpes.

E) lymphogranuloma venereum.

110) Which of the following recurs at the initial site of infection?

A) gonorrhea

B) syphilis

C) genital herpes

D) chancroid

E) LGV

111) Which of the following is caused by an opportunistic pathogen?

A) trichomoniasis

B) genital herpes

C) candidiasis

D) gonorrhea

E) chancroid

112) The pH of the adult vagina is acidic due to the conversion of ________ to ________ by bacteria.

A) glucose; ethanol

B) protein; acetic acid

C) glycogen; lactic acid

D) mucosal cells; lactic acid

E) urine; lactic acid

113) A urine sample collected directly from the urinary bladder

A) is sterile.

B) contains fewer than 100 pathogens/ml.

C) contains fewer than 10,000 pathogens/ml.

D) contains more than 100,000 pathogens/ml.

E) has leukocyte esterase.

114) Most nosocomial infections of the urinary tract are caused by

A) Escherichia coli.

B) Enterococcus.

C) Proteus.

D) Klebsiella.

E) Pseudomonas.

115) The most common reportable disease in the United States is

A) cystitis.

B) lymphogranuloma venereum.

C) gonorrhea.

D) syphilis.

E) candidiasis.

116) Which of the following is NOT a complication of gonorrhea?

A) arthritis

B) pelvic inflammatory disease

C) endocarditis

D) meningitis

E) None of the answers are correct; all of these are potential complications of gonorrhea.

117) Which one of the following statements about genital warts is FALSE?

A) It is transmitted by direct contact.

B) It is caused by papillomaviruses.

C) It is always precancerous.

D) It is treated by removing them.

E) It can lead to cervical cancer in women.

118) Which one of the following does NOT cause nongonococcal urethritis?

A) Chlamydia

B) Mycoplasma

C) Neisseria

D) Ureaplasma

E) None of the answers is correct; all of these cause NGU.

119) Infants born to asymptomatic mothers with recurrent genital herpes are less likely to acquire herpesvirus at birth than infants born to newly infected mothers because

A) maternal antibodies offer protection.

B) the disease cannot be transmitted to newborns.

C) the disease is not communicable.

D) prophylactic antibiotics are administered to the newborn.

E) the virus is not growing.