Microbio Exam 3 Flashcards

1) What type of immunity results from vaccination?

A) innate immunity

B) naturally acquired active immunity

C) naturally acquired passive immunity

D) artificially acquired active immunity

E) artificially acquired passive immunity

2) What type of immunity results from transfer of antibodies from one individual to a susceptible individual by means of injection?

A) innate immunity

B) naturally acquired active immunity

C) naturally acquired passive immunity

D) artificially acquired active immunity

E) artificially acquired passive immunity

3) What type of immunity results from recovery from mumps?

A) innate immunity

B) naturally acquired active immunity

C) naturally acquired passive immunity

D) artificially acquired active immunity

E) artificially acquired passive immunity

4) Which of the following is the best definition of epitope?

A) specific regions on antigens that interact with T-cell receptors

B) specific regions on antigens that interact with MHC class molecules

C) specific regions on antigens that interact with haptens

D) specific regions on antigens that interact with antibodies

E) specific regions on antigens that interact with perforins

5) Newborns' immunity due to the transfer of antibodies across the placenta is an example of

A) innate immunity.

B) naturally acquired active immunity.

C) naturally acquired passive immunity.

D) artificially acquired active immunity.

E) artificially acquired passive immunity.

6) Which of the following statements is NOT a possible outcome of antigen-antibody reaction?

A) clonal deletion

B) activation of complement

C) opsonization

D) ADCC

E) agglutination

7) Which of the following cells is NOT an APC?

A) dentritic cells

B) macrophages

C) mature B cells

D) natural killer cells

E) None of the answers is correct; all of these are APCs.

8) When an antibody binds to a toxin, the resulting action is referred to as

A) agglutination.

B) opsonization.

C) ADCC.

D) apoptosis.

E) neutralization.

9) CD4+ T cells are activated by

A) interaction between CD4+and MHC II.

B) interaction between TCRs and MHC II.

C) cytokines released by dendritic cells.

D) cytokines released by B cells.

E) complement.

10) Which of the following recognizes antigens displayed on host cells with MHC II?

A) TCcell

B) B cell

C) THcell

D) natural killer cell

E) basophil

11) The specificity of an antibody is due to

A) its valence.

B) the H chains.

C) the L chains.

D) the constant portions of the H and L chains.

E) the variable portions of the H and L chains.

12) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of B cells?

A) They originate in bone marrow.

B) They have antibodies on their surfaces.

C) They are responsible for the memory response.

D) They are responsible for antibody formation.

E) They recognize antigens associated with MHC I.

13) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cellular immunity?

A) The cells originate in bone marrow.

B) Cells are processed in the thymus gland.

C) It can inhibit the immune response.

D) B cells make antibodies.

E) T cells react with antigens.

14) Plasma cells are activated by a(n)

A) antigen.

B) T cell.

C) B cell.

D) memory cell.

E) APC.

15) The antibodies found in mucus, saliva, and tears are

A) IgG.

B) IgM.

C) IgA.

D) IgD.

E) IgE.

16) The antibodies found almost entirely and only on the surface of B cells (not secreted from them), and which always exist as monomers, are

A) IgG.

B) IgM.

C) IgA.

D) IgD.

E) IgE.

17) The antibodies that can bind to large parasites are

A) IgG.

B) IgM.

C) IgA.

D) IgD.

E) IgE.

18) In addition to IgG, the antibodies that can fix complement are

A) IgM.

B) IgA.

C) IgD.

D) IgE.

E) None of the answers is correct.

19) Large antibodies that agglutinate antigens are

A) IgG.

B) IgM.

C) IgA.

D) IgD.

E) IgE.

20) The most abundant class of antibodies in serum is

A) IgG.

B) IgM.

C) IgA.

D) IgD.

E) IgE.

Figure 17.1

21) In Figure 17.1, which letter on the graph indicates the patient's secondary response to a repeated exposure with the identical antigen?

A) a

B) b

C) c

D) d

E) e

22) In Figure 17.1, which letter on the graph indicates the highest antibody titer during the patient's response to a second and distinct/different antigen?

A) a

B) b

C) c

D) d

E) e

23) In Figure 17.1, the arrow at time (c) indicates

A) the time of exposure to the same antigen as at time (a).

B) the secondary response.

C) the primary response.

D) exposure to a new antigen.

E) the T-cell response.

24) Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A) The variable region of a heavy chain is partially responsible for binding with antigen.

B) The variable region of a light chain is partially responsible for binding with antigen.

C) The Fc region attaches to a host cell.

D) The constant region of a heavy chain is the same for all antibodies.

E) All of the answers are correct.

25) Which of the following is the best definition of antigen?

A) something foreign in the body

B) a chemical that elicits an antibody response and can combine with these antibodies

C) a chemical that combines with antibodies

D) a pathogen

E) a protein that combines with antibodies

26) Which of the following WBCs are NOT lymphocytes?

A) cytotoxic T cells

B) helper T cells

C) NK cells

D) M cells

E) B cells

27) The following events elicit an antibody response. What is the third step?

A) Antigen-digest goes to surface of APC.

B) APC phagocytizes antigen.

C) B cell is activated.

D) THcell recognizes antigen-digest and MHC II.

E) TH cell produces cytokines.

28) In Figure 17.2, which areas are similar for all IgG antibodies?

A) a and b

B) a and c

C) b and c

D) c and d

E) b and d

29) In Figure 17.2, which areas are different for all IgM antibodies?

A) a and b

B) a and c

C) b and c

D) c and d

30) In Figure 17.2, which areas represent antigen-binding sites?

A) a and b

B) a and c

C) b and c

D) c and d

E) b and d

31) In Figure 17.2, what portion will typically attach to a host cell?

A) a and c

B) b

C) b and c

D) a and d

E) e

32) Which of the following bacterial components would most likely result in B cell stimulation by T-independent antigens?

A) capsule

B) flagellum

C) pili

D) ribosome

E) plasmid

33) The presence of which of the following indicates a current infection rather than a previous infection or vaccination?

A) IgA

B) IgG

C) IgM

D) IgD

E) IgE

34) Which of the following destroys virus-infected cells?

A) CTL

B) Treg

C) TH

D) dendritic cells

E) B cells

35) The following events occur in cellular immunity, leading to a response from TH cells. What is the third step?

A) Antibodies are produced.

B) Dendritic cell takes up antigen.

C) Antigen enters M cell.

D) THcell produces cytokines.

E) THcells proliferate.

36) Cytokines released by TH1 cells

A) activate CD8+cells to CTLs.

B) convert TH1 cells to TH2 cells.

C) convert TH2 cells to TH1 cells.

D) kill parasites.

E) convert B cells to T cells.

37) Which one of the following causes transmembrane channels in target cells?

A) granzymes

B) hapten

C) IL-1

D) IL-2

E) perforin

38) At a minimum, the human immune system is capable of recognizing approximately how many different antigens?

A) 105

B) 1010

C) 1015

D) 1020

E) 1025

39) Thymic selection

A) destroys T cells that do not recognize self-molecules of MHC.

B) destroys B cells that make antibodies against self.

C) destroys MHC molecules.

D) destroys CD4+cells that attack self.

E) activates B cells.

40) Which of the following statements about natural killer cells is FALSE?

A) They destroy virus-infected cells.

B) They destroy tumor cells.

C) They destroy cells lacking MHC I.

D) They are stimulated by an antigen.

E) None of the answers are correct; all of these statements are true.

41) An antibody's Fc region can be bound by

A) antibodies.

B) macrophages.

C) T helper cells.

D) B cells.

E) CTLs.

42) A Treg cell deficiency could result in

A) increased number of viral infections.

B) increased number of bacterial infections.

C) autoimmunity.

D) increased severity of bacterial infections.

E) transplant rejection.

43) ADCC is a process that is most effective in destroying

A) eukaryotic pathogens.

B) prions.

C) extracellular viruses.

D) bacterial pathogens.

E) bacterial toxins.

44) IL-2, produced by TH cells,

A) activates macrophages.

B) stimulates THcell maturation.

C) causes phagocytosis.

D) activates antigen-presenting cells.

E) activates TCcells to CTLs.

45) Which of the following statements about IL-12 is FALSE?

A) It activates macrophages.

B) It inhibits some tumor cells.

C) It activates the TH1 pathway.

D) It causes autoimmune diseases.

E) It causes THcells to respond to HIV.

46) Apoptosis results in significant leakage of cellular contents.

A) True

B) False

47) Cytokines are protein-based chemical messengers that allow for communication between cells of the immune system.

A) True

B) False

48) Only dendritic cells produce interleukins.

A) True

B) False

49) The production of interferons at an infection site is critical for chemotaxis.

A) True

B) False

50) Cytokine storms negatively impact human health.

A) True

B) False

51) The variable region of the antibody is solely responsible the significant diversity of antigen targets.

A) True

B) False

52) Plasma cells will eventually differentiate into memory cells.

A) True

B) False

53) Memory cells do not require B cell receptors.

A) True

B) False

54) The implementation of vaccinations occurred prior to experimental support for the germ theory of disease.

A) True

B) False

55) When haptens attach to carrier molecules, an epitope forms on hapten which then can be bound to antibody.

A) True

B) False

56) How do all viruses differ from bacteria?

A) Viruses are filterable.

B) Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites.

C) Viruses do not have any nucleic acid.

D) Viruses are not composed of cells.

E) Viruses do not reproduce.

57) Which of the following statements provides the most significant support for the idea that viruses are nonliving chemicals?

A) They are not composed of cells.

B) They are filterable.

C) They cannot reproduce themselves outside a host.

D) They cause diseases similar to those caused by chemicals.

E) They are chemically simple.

58) Which of the following statements about viral spikes is FALSE?

A) They are composed of carbohydrate-protein complexes.

B) They are used for attachment.

C) They may cause hemagglutination.

D) They bind to receptors on the host cell surface.

E) They are found only on nonenveloped viruses.

59) Which of the following is NOT used as a criterion to classify viruses?

A) biochemical tests

B) morphology

C) nucleic acid

D) size

E) number of capsomeres

60) Which of the following is NOT utilized to culture viruses?

A) laboratory animals

B) culture media

C) embryonated eggs

D) animal cell cultures

E) bacterial cultures

61) Bacteriophages and animal viruses do NOT differ significantly in which one of the following steps?

A) attachment

B) penetration

C) uncoating

D) biosynthesis

E) release

62) The definition of lysogeny is

A) phage DNA is incorporated into host cell DNA.

B) lysis of the host cell due to a phage.

C) the period during replication when virions are not present.

D) when the burst time takes an unusually long time.

E) attachment of a phage to a cell.

63) In Figure 13.1, which structure is a complex virus?

A) a

B) b

C) c

D) d

E) All of the structures are complex viruses

64) The structures illustrated in Figure 13.1 are composed of

A) DNA.

B) RNA.

C) DNA or RNA.

D) Capsomeres.

E) viroids.

65) A clear area against a confluent "lawn" of bacteria is called a

A) phage.

B) pock.

C) cell lysis.

D) plaque.

E) rash.

66) A persistent infection is one in which

A) the virus remains in equilibrium with the host without causing a disease.

B) viral replication is unusually slow.

C) the disease process occurs gradually over a long period.

D) host cells are gradually lysed.

E) host cells are transformed.

67) Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A) A prophage is phage DNA inserted into a bacterial chromosome.

B) A prophage can "pop" out of the chromosome.

C) Prophage genes are repressed by a repressor protein coded for by the prophage.

D) A prophage may result in new properties of the host cell.

E) The prophage makes the host cell immune to infection by other phages.

68) Lysogeny can result in all of the following EXCEPT

A) immunity to reinfection by the same phage.

B) acquisition of new characteristics by the host cell.

C) immunity to reinfection by any phage.

D) specialized transduction.

E) phage conversion.

69) An infectious protein is a

A) bacteriophage.

B) prion.

C) retrovirus.

D) viroid.

E) papovavirus.

70) An envelope is acquired during which of the following steps?

A) penetration

B) adsorption

C) uncoating

D) biosynthesis

E) release

71) Which of the following statements is NOT true of lysogeny?

A) It can give infected pathogens the genetic information for toxin production.

B) Prophage is inserted into the host genome.

C) Lytic cycle may follow lysogeny.

D) It is a "silent" infection; the virus does not replicate.

E) It causes lysis of host cells.

72) An example of a latent viral infection is

A) subacute sclerosing panencephalitis.

B) cold sores.

C) influenza.

D) smallpox.

E) mumps.

73) A virus's ability to infect an animal cell depends primarily upon the

A) host cell's ability to phagocytize viral particles.

B) presence of receptor sites on the cell membrane.

C) type of viral nucleic acid.

D) enzymatic activity of a host cell.

E) presence of pili on the host cell wall.

74) The mechanism whereby an enveloped virus leaves a host cell is called

A) transduction.

B) budding.

C) abduction.

D) lysogeny.

E) penetration.

75) The most conclusive evidence that viruses cause cancers is provided by

A) finding oncogenes in viruses.

B) the presence of antibodies against viruses in cancer patients.

C) cancer following injection of cell-free filtrates.

D) treating cancer with antibodies.

E) some liver cancer patients having had hepatitis.

76) Bacteriophages derive all of the following from the host cell EXCEPT

A) lysozyme.

B) tRNA.

C) amino acids.

D) nucleotides.

E) ATP.

77) All of the following are true of hypersensitivity EXCEPT

A) it occurs in the presence of an antigen.

B) it is synonymous with "allergy."

C) it occurs when an individual is exposed to an allergen for the first time.

D) it is due to an altered immune response.

E) it requires previous exposure to an antigen.

78) The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are

A) found in basophils and mast cells.

B) antibodies.

C) antigens.

D) antigen-antibody complexes.

E) the proteins of the complement system.

79) Which of the following may result from systemic anaphylaxis?

A) hay fever

B) asthma

C) shock

D) hives

E) immunodeficiency

80) Which antibodies will be in the serum of a person with blood type B, Rh+?

A) anti-A, anti-B, anti-Rh

B) anti-A, anti-Rh

C) anti-A

D) anti-B, anti-Rh

E) anti-B

81) Which of the following types of transplant is least compatible?

A) autograft

B) allograft

C) isograft

D) xenotransplant

E) All of these types of transplant are equally compatible.

82) When testing donated blood for compatibility you would find a person with O type blood

A) has O type antigens on their red blood cells.

B) will lack plasma antibodies to A and B type antigens.

C) will lack A and B red blood cell antigens.

D) lacks HLA and MHC antigens.

E) will have anti-O antibodies in their plasma.

83) Graft-versus-host disease will most likely be a complication of a(n)

A) skin graft.

B) bone marrow transplant.

C) blood transfusion.

D) Rh incompatibility between mother and fetus.

E) corneal transplant.

84) A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of

A) delayed cell-mediated immunity.

B) autoimmunity.

C) acute contact dermatitis.

D) psoriasis.

E) innate immunity.

85) A healthy immune system destroys cancer cells with

A) tumor-specific antigens.

B) CTLs.

C) CTLs and activated macrophages.

D) activated macrophages.

E) CD+T cells.

86) Rheumatoid arthritis is due to deposition of

A) IgG and IgA complexes in joints.

B) IgA antibodies in joints.

C) IgD and IgE complexes in joints.

D) complement in joints.

E) complexes of IgM and IgG and also complement in joints.

87) Allergic contact dermatitis is due to

A) sensitized T cells.

B) IgG antibodies.

C) IgE antibodies.

D) IgM antibodies.

E) activated macrophages.

88) Attachment of HIV to the target cell depends on

A) gp120 combining with the CD4+

B) gp120 combining with the chemokine receptor CCR5.

C) gp41 binding to the CD4+

D) gp120 binding to the CD4+plasma membrane.

E) CXCR4 binding to the CD4+

89) All of the following pertain to serological tests EXCEPT

A) they can detect antibodies but not antigens.

B) they can be used to diagnose various diseases.

C) reactions can be detected by uptake of trypan blue by damaged cells.

D) they are used to test for specific HLAs on lymphocytes.

E) they are used to detect compatible tissues for transplantation.

90) The process of desensitization to prevent allergies involves the injection of increasing amounts of

A) IgE.

B) IgG.

C) antihistamine.

D) antigen.

E) RhoGAM.

91) Table 19.1

Donor |Recipient

1. AB, Rh- |AB, Rh+

2. A, Rh+ |A, Rh-

3. A, Rh+ |O, Rh+

4. B, Rh- |B, Rh+

5. B, Rh+ |A, Rh+

Which blood transfusions in Table 19.1 are incompatible?

A) 2 and 5

B) 1, 2, and 3

C) 2, 3, and 5

D) 3 and 4

E) 1 and 2

92) Hemolytic disease of the newborn can result from an

A) Rh+mother with an Rh-

B) Rh-mother with an Rh+

C) AB mother with a B fetus.

D) AB mother with an O fetus.

E) Rh-mother and an A fetus.

93) Which is true regarding Herceptin therapy?

A) It neutralizes the growth factor EGF.

B) It acts as an immunotoxin to target and kill cancer cells.

C) It is used to treat some breast cancer patients.

D) It is a vaccine to prevent the development of cancer.

E) It is an endotoxin that stimulates TNF by macrophages.

94) Which of the following utilizes a combination of monoclonal antitumor antibody and immunotoxin?

A) immunologic enhancement

B) immunologic surveillance

C) immunotherapy

D) immunosuppression

E) immune complex

95) All of the following are reasons why an HIV vaccine has not been developed EXCEPT

A) there is no known animal model of natural immunity for HIV infection.

B) use of a weakened virus would potentially transmit the infection.

C) small, inexpensive animals which could be used for HIV vaccine research are not available.

D) vaccines are not effective against viral infections.

E) HIV has a high mutation rate so one vaccination would not be effective to treat the world-wide pandemic.

96) Treatment with certain drugs to reduce transplant rejection can cause

A) immunologic enhancement.

B) immunologic surveillance.

C) immunotherapy.

D) immunosuppression.

E) autoimmunity.

97) In immune complex reaction shown in Figure 19.1, what is the small, circular/spherical structure labeled "a"?

A) antibody

B) antigen

C) complement

D) neutrophil

E) mast cell

98) In immune complex reaction shown in Figure 19.1, what is the end result of the reaction?

A) IgG is directed against cell membrane antigens.

B) Complement is activated.

C) Neutrophils are attracted and release enzymes.

D) Endothelial cells are damaged.

E) Antibodies destroy neutrophils.

99) Worldwide, the primary method of transmission of HIV is

A) heterosexual intercourse.

B) homosexual intercourse.

C) intravenous drug use.

D) blood transfusions.

E) nosocomial.

100) HIV spikes attach to CD4+ receptors found on

A) T helper cells.

B) macrophages.

C) dendritic cells.

D) T helper cells and macrophages.

E) T helper cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells.

101) Which of the following is the least likely vaccine against HIV?

A) attenuated virus

B) glycoprotein

C) protein core

D) subunit

E) All of these vaccines are equally likely.

102) Which of the following is a possible outcome of an HIV infection?

A) Virions may remain latent.

B) There may be persistent yeast infections.

C) Infection may initially be asymptomatic.

D) The disease does not progress to AIDS.

E) All of the answers are correct.

103) Anaphylaxis is the term for reactions caused when certain antigens combine with

A) IgE antibodies.

B) macrophages.

C) IgG antibodies.

D) complement.

E) histamine.

104) All of the following are considered examples of type I hypersensitivity EXCEPT

A) asthma.

B) dust allergies.

C) penicillin allergic reactions.

D) pollen allergies.

E) transplant rejections.

105) In rheumatoid arthritis, IgM, IgG, and complement deposit in joints. This is an example of

A) cytotoxic autoimmunity.

B) immune complex autoimmunity.

C) cell-mediated autoimmunity.

D) immunosuppression.

E) acquired immunodeficiency.

106) All of the following are normal microbiota of the skin EXCEPT

A) Streptococcus.

B) Micrococcus.

C) Staphylococcus.

D) Propionibacterium.

E) Corynebacterium.

107) An eight-year-old girl has scabs and pus-filled vesicles on her face and throat. Three weeks earlier she had visited her grandmother, who had shingles. What infection does the eight-year-old have?

A) chickenpox

B) measles

C) fever blisters

D) scabies

E) rubella

108) Which of the following is NOT true of acne?

A) It can be treated by eliminating fatty foods from the diet.

B) It is often due to the action of Propionibacterium.

C) Drugs that inhibit sebum formation are useful in treating inflammatory acne.

D) Mild cases are treated with topical agents.

E) Antibiotics may be prescribed for moderate cases.

109) Warts are caused by

A) papillomavirus.

B) poxvirus.

C) herpesvirus.

D) parvovirus.

E) Staphylococcus aureus.

110) All of the following are characteristic of Pseudomonas aeruginosa EXCEPT

A) gram-positive cell wall.

B) resistance to many types of disinfectants and antibiotics.

C) growth in moist environments.

D) production of pyocyanin.

E) rod-shaped.

111) Koplik spots are a diagnostic indicator of

A) chickenpox.

B) smallpox.

C) fifth disease.

D) rubella.

E) measles.

112) All of the following are transmitted via the respiratory route EXCEPT

A) smallpox.

B) chickenpox.

C) rubella.

D) tinea.

E) measles.

113) All of the following are protective factors of the skin and its secretions EXCEPT

A) keratin.

B) tightly packed cells.

C) lysozyme production.

D) pyocyanin production.

E) salt.

114) Thrush and vaginitis are caused by

A) herpesvirus.

B) Chlamydia trachomatis.

C) Candida albicans.

D) Staphylococcus aureus.

E) Streptococcus pyogenes.

115) The greatest single cause of blindness in the world is

A) neonatal gonorrheal ophthalmia.

B) keratoconjunctivitis.

C) trachoma.

D) inclusion conjunctivitis.

E) pinkeye.

116) All of the following are characteristic of the Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci EXCEPT

A) methicillin resistance.

B) M proteins.

C) the ability to damage cell membranes.

D) the ability to dissolve blood clots.

E) hyaluronidase production.

117) Which of the following cause(s) ringworm?

A) Microsporum

B) Epidermophyton

C) Mycobacterium

D) Microsporum and Epidermophyton

E) Microsporum, Epidermophyton, and Mycobacterium

118) Newborns' eyes are treated with an antibiotic

A) when Neisseria gonorrhoeae is isolated from the eyes.

B) when the mother is blind.

C) when the mother has genital herpes.

D) when the mother has gonorrhea.

E) as a routine precaution.

119) A possible complication of chickenpox is

A) encephalitis.

B) fever blisters.

C) subacute sclerosing panencephalitis.

D) congenital rubella syndrome.

E) macular rash.

120) Which of the following is a subcutaneous mycosis?

A) tinea capitis.

B) sporotrichosis.

C) erysipelas.

D) athlete's foot.

E) Buruli ulcer.

121) Which region of the skin supports the largest bacterial population?

A) armpits

B) scalp

C) forearms

D) feet

E) All of these support similarly sized bacterial populations.

122) Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT

A) pimples.

B) sties.

C) boils.

D) carbuncles.

E) acne.

123) Exfoliative toxin is responsible for

A) otitis externa.

B) impetigo.

C) fever blisters.

D) scalded skin syndrome.

E) thrush.

124) All of the following are causative agents of conjunctivitis EXCEPT

A) Chlamydia trachomatis.

B) herpes simplex.

C) adenovirus.

D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

E) Haemophilus influenzae.

125) In which of the following respects is measles similar to German measles (rubella)?

A) They have a similar type of rash.

B) They are caused by the same virus.

C) Encephalitis is a possible complication.

D) Congenital complications may occur.

E) They can be controlled by vaccination.

126) Why is vaccination for rubella recommended?

A) It has a high mortality rate in school-age children.

B) Death from secondary infections is common.

C) There is a high incidence of congenital infections and birth defects.

D) Health care workers have a high incidence of infection.

E) It is no longer recommended; rubella has been eradicated.

127) Which of the following statements about congenital rubella syndrome is FALSE?

A) It is contracted during the first trimester of pregnancy.

B) It may be fatal to the unborn child.

C) It may result in deafness, blindness, and mental retardation.

D) It does not occur with subclinical infections.

E) It can be prevented by vaccinating women prior to pregnancy.

128) Which of the following are incorrectly matched?

A) varicella-zoster — chickenpox

B) parvovirus — fifth disease

C) HHV-6 — roseola

D) herpes zoster — shingles

E) poxvirus — fever blisters

129) Which of the following is NOT caused by HSV-1?

A) cold sores

B) canker sores

C) herpes gladiatorum

D) herpes whitlow

E) herpes encephalitis

130) Which of the following statements about Reye syndrome is FALSE?

A) It is associated with aspirin use.

B) It is a complication that may occur in chickenpox infection.

C) It mostly affects older adults.

D) Symptoms may include vomiting, drowsiness, or behavior changes.

E) Prolonged neurological problems may occur.

131) The eradication of smallpox was possible because

A) it was a relatively mild disease.

B) insect vectors were eliminated.

C) there are no animal reservoirs of the virus.

D) it can be prevented with the same vaccine used to prevent chickenpox.

E) it occurs only in the tropics.

132) Which of the following is used to treat herpetic keratitis?

A) penicillin

B) sulfonamide

C) trifluridine

D) fungicide

E) acyclovir

133) Which of the following is used to treat shingles?

A) penicillin

B) sulfonamide

C) trifluridine

D) fungicide

E) acyclovir

134) Which of the following is used to treat sporotrichosis?

A) penicillin

B) sulfonamide

C) trifluridine

D) oral potassium iodide

E) acyclovir

135) Which of the following is used to treat candidiasis of the skin or mucous membranes?

A) penicillin

B) sulfonamide

C) trifluridine

D) miconazole

E) acyclovir

136) Scabies is a skin disease caused by a

A) slow virus.

B) protozoan.

C) mite.

D) bacterium.

E) prion.

137) Scabies is transmitted by

A) fomites.

B) food.

C) water.

D) soil.

E) respiratory secretions.

138) A patient has pus-filled vesicles and scabs on her face, throat, and lower back. She most likely has

A) measles.

B) mumps.

C) chickenpox.

D) rubella.

E) smallpox.

139) Which of the following leads to all the others?

A) toxemia

B) scalded skin syndrome

C) staphylococcal infection

D) TSST-1

E) sudden drop in blood pressure

140) Buruli ulcer is caused by

A) gram-positive bacteria.

B) acid-fast bacteria.

C) a fungus.

D) a virus.

E) a mite.

141) The patient has a papular rash. Microscopic examination of skin scrapings reveals small eight-legged animals. The etiology is

A) Candida.

B) Microsporum.

C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

D) Staphylococcus aureus.

E) Sarcoptes.

142) The patient has vesicles and scabs over her forehead. Microscopic examination of skin scrapings shows gram-positive cocci in clusters. The etiology is

A) Candida.

B) Microsporum.

C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

D) Staphylococcus aureus.

E) Sarcoptes.

143) The patient has scaling skin on his fingers. Conidiospores are seen in microscopic examination of skin scrapings. The etiology is

A) Candida.

B) Microsporum.

C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

D) Staphylococcus aureus.

E) Mycobacterium ulcerans.

144) A 45-year-old man has pus-filled vesicles distributed over his back in the upper right quadrant, over his right shoulder, and upper right quadrant of his chest. His symptoms are most likely due to

A) Candida albicans.

B) herpes simplex virus.

C) Staphylococcus aureus.

D) Streptococcus pyogenes.

E) varicella-zoster virus.

145) A 35-year-old woman has a red, raised rash on the inside of her thighs. Gram-stained skin scrapings show large budding cells with pseudohyphae. The infection is caused by

A) Candida albicans.

B) herpes simplex virus.

C) Staphylococcus aureus.

D) Streptococcus pyogenes.

E) varicella-zoster virus.

146) Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

A) Haemophilus influenzae — pinkeye

B) Chlamydia trachomatis — trachoma

C) Neisseria gonorrhea — opthalmia neonatorum

D) Acanthamoeba — keratitis

E) Pseudomonas — inclusion conjunctivitis

147) Assume that your lab partner swabs the side of his face and uses the swab to inoculate a nutrient agar plate. The next day, he performs a Gram stain on the colonies. They are gram-positive cocci. You advise him that he should next look for

A) an acid-fast reaction.

B) a coagulase reaction.

C) conidiospores.

D) pseudohyphae.

E) pseudopods.

148) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

A) chickenpox — poxvirus

B) conjunctivitis — Chlamydia trachomatis

C) keratitis — Acanthamoeba

D) otitis externa - Pseudomonas

E) Buruli ulcer — Mycobacterium