1. (CH1) Definitions of HRM tend to assume that:
a. HRM is a strategic perspective on people management
b. That an organisation’s sustained competitive advantage will only be secured by an investment in your people
c. It is essential to secure a highly skilled and committed workforce
d. All of the above
d
2. (CH1) Ulrich & Brockbank’s (2005) HR Leader Model proposes the following roles for HRM:
a. Strategic Partner, Human Capital Developer, Employee Advocate and Functional Expert
b. Conformist Innovator, Deviant Innovator, Problem Solver and Change Agent
c. Regulator, Handmaiden, Advisor and Change Maker
d. Adapter, Consultant, Synergist and Champion
a
3. (CH1) ‘Hard HRM’ refers to HR policies and practices that:
a. Focus on gaining the commitment and engagement of employees
b. Focus on setting targets and measuring employees’ performance
c. Are difficult for employers to initiate
d. Help develop a robust and tenacious workforce
b
4. (CH1) ‘Soft HRM’ refers to HR policies and practices that:
a. Focus on the control and coordination of employees’ work
b. Emphasise employees’ compliance with organisational rules and regulations
c. Focus on developing employees’ intrinsic motivation at work
d. Promote a weak and feeble workforce
c
5. (CH1) Scientific Management proposes that greater workplace efficiency will be promoted by:
a. Mechanising the workplace, simplifying and routinising work and closely aligning pay with individual productivity outputs
b. Mechanising the workplace, simplifying and routinising work and closely aligning pay with team-based productivity outputs
c. Developing cross-functional teams and providing employees with greater decision-making responsibility and ownership
d. Providing a greater role for Research and Development in organisations.
a
6. (CH1) Critical perspectives on HRM suggest that:
a. HRM is just a new name for traditional management practices
b. HRM is principally about gaining the control and compliance of employees against the strategic goals of the organisation
c. Empirical evidence for the positive outcomes of HRM is limited and thus the ‘reality’ of HRM in practice is limited.
d. All of the above
d
7. (CH1) HR outsourcing:
a. Is about setting up your HR function in a foreign country
b. Is about reducing the costs of the HR function
c. Is an HR organising model that seeks to support both the strategic and operational roles of HRM
d. All of the above
c
8. (CH1) PESTEL refers to the:
a. Political, Economic, Social, Technological, Educational and Legal environment factors that affect a business and its HR policies and practices
b. Political, External, Social, Technological, Educational and Legal environmental factors that affect a business and its HR policies and practices
c. Political, Economic, Scientific, Technological, Educational and Legal environmental factors that affect a business and its HR policies and practices
d. Political, Economic, Social, Technological, Environmental, and Legal factors that affect a business and its HR policies and practices
d
9. (CH1) The ‘triple bottom line’ refers to an organisation’s:
a. Economic, HR and CSR performance
b. Economic, Social and Environmental performance
c. Business, HR and Environmental performance
d. Social, Environmental and Sustainability performance
b
10. (CH1) The CIPD suggest that HR professionals require the following skills/traits to be a successful HR practitioner:
a. Curious, decisive, collaborative, credible
b. Autocratic, egoistic, autonomous, risk taking
c. Affable, generous, easy going, caring
d. Risk averse, introverted, conforming, agreeable
a
1. (CH7) Which type of validity is of most importance for HR professionals?
a. Construct validity
b. Predictive (criterion-related) validity
c. Content validity
d. Face validity
b
2. (CH7) What outputs does Worker-oriented Job Analysis typically produce?
a. Measures of person–organisation fit
b. Job tasks and elements
c. Knowledge, Skills, Abilities and Other Attributes
d. A job description
c
3. (CH7) Which of the following selection methods is NOT considered to show acceptable predictive validity?
a. Personality testing
b. Biodata
c. Structured interviewing
d. Graphology
d
4. (CH7) Which of the following psychological effects is likely to have the least impact on the subjective assessments of interviewers under normal circumstances?
a. The beautyism effect
b. The Hawthorne effect
c. The similarity effect
d. The halo effect
b
5. (CH7) Which of the following combinations of attributes best captures Silzer & Church’s (2009) attributes that define high-potential individuals?
a. Openness, job satisfaction and integrity
b. Emotional stability, self-efficacy and intellectual career interests
c. High cognitive ability, motivation and leadership
d. Emotional intelligence, organisational commitment and agreeableness
c
6. (CH7) Which of the following selection methods tend to be viewed most favourably by candidates?
a. Personal contacts
b. Interviews
c. Graphology
d. Honesty tests
b
7. (CH7) Which piece of legislation governs recruitment and selection processes in the UK?
a. The Human Rights Act
b. The Disability Discrimination Act
c. The Equality Act
d. The Race Relations Act
c
8. (CH7) Which of the following methods is NOT a legal way of ensuring fairness in selection in the UK?
a. Quota systems
b. Encouraging applications from minority group candidates
c. Choosing job-relevant selection methods
d. Recording and monitoring the proportion of minority and majority group candidates who are selected in a process
a
9. (CH7) According to figures cited by Brown & Vaughn (2011), what is the most recent estimate of the percentage of recruiting managers that gather social networking data on job applicants?
a. 10%
b. 22%
c. 78%
d. 45%
d
10. (CH7) What is the advantage of making selection decisions on the basis of person–organisation fit?
a. Avoidance of intra-group conflict
b. Ensuring the face validity of the selection process
c. Ensuring fairness in the selection process
d. Maximising the potential for future job performance
a
1. (CH9) What is learning?
a. A change in one’s cognition, action or interaction with others
b. A planned intervention
c. A portfolio of knowledge, skills or attitudes
d. A step-by-step instructional process
a
2. (CH9) Which are the four main theoretical perspectives on learning?
a. Behaviourism, cognitivism, sociocultural and economic theory
b. Behaviourism, socialism, constructivism and feminism.
c. Behaviourism, socialism, agency theory and positive psychology
d. Behaviourism, cognitivism, experiential learning and social learning
d
3. (CH9) Who developed the learning style inventory?
a. Bandura
b. Piaget
c. Skinner
d. Kolb
d
4. (CH9) Which are the four critical conditions of role modelling?
a. Attention- attraction-production-satisfaction
b. Attention-retention-reproduction-motivation
c. Attention-attachment-production-evolution
d. Attention-retention-satisfaction-motivation
b
5. (CH9) Which of the following is not formal learning intervention?
a. Job shadowing
b. Job rotation
c. E-learning training
d. Network of part-time mums
d
6. (CH9) How many stages does the systematic training cycle have?
a. Two
b. Five
c. Four
d. Seven
c
7. (CH9) How can L&D achieve horizontal integration?
a. By aligning its objectives with the vision and mission of the organisation
b. By systematically evaluating its strategic vision
c. By strategically aligning its objectives with the objectives of the HR function
d. By facilitating the interventions of strategic importance to the organisation
c
8. (CH9) What is a learning plan?
a. A list that contains all the necessary elements for the delivery of an intervention
b. A strategic L&D objective
c. A learning agreement between the employee and the organisation
d. An intervention for career change
a
9. (CH9) Which is the final step of the strategic L&D process?
a. Needs analysis
b. Strategic implementation of L&D practices
c. Integration with business objectives
d. Evaluation of L&D contribution
d
10. (CH9) Which of the following is not an L&D future challenge?
a. To support the emergence of intellectual capital
b. To continue enhancing the contribution of L&D division
c. To ensure the L&D practitioner is a business partner
d. To promote classroom based training to improve performance
d
1. (CH10) The purpose of reward is:
a. To attract individuals to the organisation
b. To retain individuals within the organisation
c. To motivate people to work
d. All of the above
d
2. (CH10) Fairness in reward:
a. Means all employees are paid the same
b. Means all employees are paid according to their performance
c. Is determined by government, which sets pay levels for business
d. Is socially constructed and therefore cannot be universally agreed upon
d
3. (CH10) The Employee Value Proposition is:
a. The amount people are paid by their organisation
b. The collection of what an organisation offers in exchange for employment
c. The amount an employee manages to negotiate for themselves on joining an organisation
d. The total pay and bonuses available to an employee
b
4. (CH10) A good work–life balance is usually considered to be an example of:
a. Intrinsic reward
b. Extrinsic reward
c. Performance-related reward
d. Compensation
a
5. (CH10) An organisation’s reward strategy:
a. Defines the pay structures
b. Reflects organisational priorities
c. Seeks to ensure a stable workforce
d. Is based on achieving a fair day’s work for a fair day’s pay
b
6. (CH10) Base or Basic Pay is:
a. Dependent upon individual performance at work
b. The basis for the social exchange within an organisation
c. The irreducible minimum that an employee can expect for fulfilling their duties at work
d. A fair assessment of an employee’s contribution to the workplace
c
7. (CH10) Job evaluation is a process which:
a. Determines the content of jobs
b. Identifies the tasks an individual undertakes
c. Establishes the value of jobs to the organisation
d. Allocates money to particular tasks and roles
c
8. (CH10) Analytical systems of job evaluation typically:
a. Review jobs as a whole rather than their component parts
b. Are looked upon favourably in equal value tribunal cases
c. Rank orders jobs from the most complex to the least complex
d. Are cheap and easy to apply
b
9. (CH10) Performance-related pay:
a. Seeks to value the contribution a person makes to the organisation
b. Seeks to value the person rather than the job
c. Ensures that all employees are effectively motivated
d. Is based on the profitability of the company
a
10. (CH10) Critiques of New Pay argue:
a. That it shifts risk away from the organisation and onto the employee
b. That it shifts risk away from the employee and onto the shareholder
c. That it shifts blame for poor performance onto managers
d. That it fails to recognise individual ability
a
1. (CH11) The process by which organisations ensure that employees are working towards achieving a company’s strategic objectives is known as:
a. Goal-setting
b. Performance management
c. Multi-source feedback
d. Performance appraisal
b
2. (CH11) Motivation can be defined as:
a. A psychological drive to behave in a particular fashion
b. The process of matching individuals’ competencies with job requirements
c. The process of assigning work tasks to individuals
d. The process of evaluating an individual’s past performance
a
3. (CH11) The process of matching individuals’ competencies with job requirements, so as to achieve the best fit, is known as:
a. Negotiation
b. Goal-setting
c. Employee involvement
d. Job assignment
d
4. (CH11) Which of the following is an employee ‘behaviour’, and not a trait?
a. Sensitivity
b. Conscientiousness
c. Quantity of work
d. Loyalty
c
5. (CH11) What is central tendency error?
a. Supervisors rating all, or most, of their subordinates around the middle of the scale
b. Supervisors rating subordinates based only on recent performance
c. Supervisors rating subordinates higher than their performance warrants
d. Supervisors rating subordinates lower than their performance warrants
a
6. (CH11) The motivation model can be summarised as follows:
a. Performance à Outcomes à Appraisal à Results à Needs
b. Performance à Needs à Appraisal à Outcomes à Results
c. Performance à Results à Outcomes à Appraisal à Needs
d. Performance à Results à Appraisal à Outcomes à Needs
b
7. (CH11) According to the Leader–Member Exchange theory, supervisors:
a. Create in-groups and out-groups among their subordinates
b. Should always be more qualified than their subordinates
c. Should give feedback to their subordinates on a daily basis
d. Should frequently exchange jobs with their subordinates
a
8. (CH11) Multi-source feedback typically refers to collecting information on individual performance from the following:
a. The employee’s supervisor, subordinate(s), clients/customers, peers
b. The employee’s supervisor, family members, clients/customers, peers
c. The employee’s neighbours, family members, clients/customers, peers
d. The employee’s neighbours, subordinate(s), clients/customers, peers
a
9. (CH11) When supervisors use only recent performance information to evaluate subordinates, this is termed as:
a. Severity error
b. Recency error
c. Leniency error
d. Central tendency error
b
10. (CH11) Under the Forced Distribution Model, supervisors are typically required to:
a. Promote all their subordinates
b. Rate a majority of their subordinates at the high end of the scale (usually 70–80%)
c. Rate no more than a certain percentage of their subordinates at the high end of the scale (usually 10–15%)
d. Rate all their subordinates at the same level
c
1 (EXAM QUESTION) In selection, the testing phase is aimed at:
a. None of the other three options
b. Assessing persuasion competencies
c. Assessing communication skills
d. Checking the candidate's CV
a
2 (EXAM QUESTION) In evaluating his team, a supervisor gives an overall high mark to a female employee, based on her stunning beauty. This is most probably:
a. An halo error
b. A contrast effect error
c. A single criterion error
d. A personal bias
d
3 (EXAM QUESTION) Benefits is one component of compensation. Its purpose is to influence:
a. The objective value of a job
b. The effort level that an individual put on a job
c. None of the options
d. The perceived simbolic value of a job
b
4 (EXAM QUESTION) The term "career objective" (or anchor) describes the career preferences for an individual. Someone who prefers an occupation that implies constant innovation and change is most probably motivated by:
a. Symbolic identity
b. None of the other options
c. Stability and security
d. Service and dedication to a cause
b
5 (EXAM QUESTION) A typical socialisation practice of the metamorphosis phase is:
a. Company's welcome guide
b. Employer branding communication in the company's website
c. Job rotation
d. Career counselling
d
6 (EXAM QUESTION) Which of the following issues is most likely a problem in performance management?
a. How to hire desired talents
b. All the options
c. How to reward talented people
d. How to promote high performers
b
7 (EXAM QUESTION) Performance appraisal systems need to comply with a number of criterion. The capacity of a PA system to show similar results across different observers is:
a. Sensitivity
b. Relevance
c. None of the other options
d. Equity
c
8 (EXAM QUESTION) A job advert to HSBC reads "selected candidates will be offered the position of Assistant Sales Manager". In the AIDA model, this is most probably working out:
a. The second A
b. The first A
c. The D
d. The I
b
9 (EXAM QUESTION) Think about this test your are performing. It is part of which phase in the training cycle?
a. Needs analysis
b. Design, development, and programming
c. Assessment of the training
d. Delivery of the course
c
10 (EXAM QUESTION) One of the recent developments in HRM is the management of temporariness. This is about:
a. The capacity to retain people
b. The capacity of HRM to stimulate punctuality
c. The metrics regarding internal personnel mobility
d. The impact of HR on people's lives
a
11 (EXAM QUESTION) One medium-size company has just created a new HR Department, with four specialists and one HR Director, who is also one of the four top managers. This model of HR Strategy - Company's Strategy is best described as:
a. HRM Leads
b. Holistic
c. Separation
d. Adjustment
b
12 (EXAM QUESTION) Strategic HRM is theoretically rooted on the Resource Based View of the Firm (Barney, 1991), which assumes that strategic resources are (identify the wrong answer):
a. Those with the potential to generate value
b. Those capable of generating value
c. Abundant and move freely across organisations
d. Difficult and/or costly to reproduce/replicate
c
13 (EXAM QUESTION) Management education, management development, and management training are three training options that differ in terms of:
a. How the training cycle unfolds
b. The type of audiences they are aimed at
c. The length of the courses/programme
d. The content of the courses/programme
d
14 (EXAM QUESTION) Which of the following best describes HR practices in small companies?
a. Clear roles and responsibilities allocated to all individuals
b. Informal practices regarding strategic HRM
c. HR practices focused on developing people and their competencies
d. Structured and formal procedures regarding performance appraisal
b
14 (EXAM QUESTION) From a holistic perspective, does Inês deserves a bottle of wine?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Maybe
a