Microbio Exam 2 Flashcards

1) Which of the following statements regarding fungi is FALSE?

A) Most fungi are pathogenic for humans.

B) Fungi are eukaryotic heterotrophs.

C) Fungi reproduce by forming asexual or sexual spores.

D) Most fungi grow well in acidic culture condition.

E) Fungi tolerate low moisture conditions.

2) Which of the following statements about helminths is FALSE?

A) They are heterotrophic.

B) They are multicellular animals.

C) They have eukaryotic cells.

D) All are parasites.

E) Some have male and female reproductive organs in one animal.

3) Which of the following statements about the oomycote algae is FALSE?

A) They form hyphae.

B) They produce zoospores in a sporangium.

C) They cause plant diseases.

D) They have chlorophyll.

E) They reproduce sexually.

4) Seventeen patients in ten hospitals had cutaneous infections caused by Rhizopus. In all seventeen patients, Elastoplast bandages were placed over sterile gauze pads to cover wounds. Fourteen of the patients had surgical wounds, two had venous line insertion sites, and one had a bite wound. Lesions present when the bandages were removed ranged from vesiculopustular eruptions to ulcerations and skin necrosis requiring debridement. Fungi are more likely than bacteria to contaminate bandages because they

A) are aerobic.

B) can tolerate low-moisture conditions.

C) prefer a neutral environment (pH 7).

D) have a fermentative metabolism.

E) cannot tolerate high osmotic pressure.

5) Which of the following statements regarding lichens is FALSE?

A) Lichens are a mutualistic relationship between a fungus and a protozoan.

B) Lichens represent a mutualistic relationship between a fungus and an alga.

C) Lichens are often the first life form to colonize rock or soil.

D) The algal partner produces carbohydrates that are absorbed by the fungal partner.

E) The fungal partner provides a means of attachment and protects the algal partner from desiccation.

6) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

A) Basidiomycota — basidiospores

B) Ascomycota — conidiospores

C) Zygomycota — sporangiospores

D) microsporidia — lack mitochondria

E) anamorphs — lack spores

Table 12.1

1-Arthroconidium 5-Chlamydoconidium

2-Ascospore 6-Conidiospore

3-Basidiospore 7-Sporangiospore

4-Blastoconidium 8-Zygospore

7) In Table 12.1, which of these spores are characteristic of Penicillium?

A) 1 and 2

B) 3 and 4

C) 2 and 6

D) 1 and 4

E) 4 and 6

Table 12.1

1-Arthroconidium 5-Chlamydoconidium

2-Ascospore 6-Conidiospore

3-Basidiospore 7-Sporangiospore

4-Blastoconidium 8-Zygospore

8) In Table 12.1, which of these spores are characteristic of Rhizopus?

A) 1 and 2

B) 6 and 7

C) 2 and 8

D) 1 and 4

E) 7 and 8

Table 12.1

1-Arthroconidium 5-Chlamydoconidium

2-Ascospore 6-Conidiospore

3-Basidiospore 7-Sporangiospore

4-Blastoconidium 8-Zygospore

9) In Table 12.1, which is a thick-walled spore formed as a segment within a hypha?

A) 1

B) 3

C) 5

D) 7

E) None of the answers is correct.

Table 12.1

1-Arthroconidium 5-Chlamydoconidium

2-Ascospore 6-Conidiospore

3-Basidiospore 7-Sporangiospore

4-Blastoconidium 8-Zygospore

10) In Table 12.1, which of these spores are asexual spores?

A) 1, 4, 5, 6, 7

B) 2, 3, 6, 8

C) 1, 3, 5, 8

D) 2, 4, 6, 7, 8

E) All of the spores are asexual.

11) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

A) teleomorph — produces both sexual and asexual spores

B) dermatomycosis — fungal infection of the skin

C) dimorphic fungus — grows as a yeast or a mold

D) systemic mycosis — fungal infection of body organs

E) coenocytic hyphae — hyphae with cross-walls

12) Which of the following statements regarding protozoa is FALSE?

A) Protozoa are unicellular eukaryotes.

B) Nearly all protozoa cause disease.

C) Most protozoa reproduce asexually.

D) Protozoa are common in water and soil.

E) Some protozoan pathogens are transmitted by arthropod vectors.

13) In mid-December, a woman with insulin-dependent diabetes who had been on prednisone fell and received an abrasion on the dorsal side of her right hand. She was placed on penicillin. By the end of January, the ulcer had not healed, and she was referred to a plastic surgeon. On January 30, a swab of the wound was cultured at 35°C on blood agar. On the same day, a smear was made for Gram staining. The Gram stain showed large (10 µm) cells. Brownish, waxy colonies grew on the blood agar. Slide cultures set up on February 1 and incubated at 25°C showed septate hyphae and single conidia. The most likely cause of the infection is a

A) gram-negative bacterium.

B) dimorphic fungus.

C) parasitic alga.

D) yeast.

E) protozoan.

14) Which of the following tends to be more complex in a parasitic helminth than in free-living helminths?

A) digestive system

B) nervous system

C) reproductive system

D) digestive and nervous systems

E) digestive, reproductive, and nervous systems

15) Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A) Fungi produce sexual spores.

B) Fungi produce asexual spores.

C) Fungal spores are used in identification of fungi.

D) Fungal spores are highly resistant to heat and chemical agents.

E) Fungal spores are for asexual or sexual reproduction.

16) Which of the following pairs are mismatched?

1. arthroconidium — formed by fragmentation
2. sporangiospore — formed within hyphae
3. conidiospore — formed in a chain
4. blastoconidium — formed from a bud
5. chlamydoconidium — formed in a sac

A) 1 and 2

B) 2 and 3

C) 2 and 5

D) 3 and 4

E) 4 and 5

17) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

A) dinoflagellates — paralytic shellfish poisoning

B) brown algae — algin

C) red algae — agar

D) diatoms — petroleum

E) green algae — prokaryotic

18) Helminthic diseases are usually transmitted to humans by

A) respiratory route.

B) genitourinary route.

C) gastrointestinal route.

D) vectors.

E) aerosols.

19) All of the following are characteristic of the Platyhelminthes EXCEPT that they

A) are hermaphroditic.

B) are dorsoventrally flattened.

C) have highly developed digestive and nervous systems.

D) can be divided into flukes and tapeworms.

E) are multicellular animals.

20) In the malaria parasite life cycle, humans are the ________ host, while mosquitoes are the ________ host as well as the vector.

A) definitive; intermediate

B) intermediate; intermediate

C) temporary; final

D) vector; intermediate

E) intermediate; definitive

21) Three weeks after a river rafting trip, three family members experienced symptoms of coughing, fever, and chest pain. During the rafting trip, the family had consumed crayfish that they caught along the river banks. An examination of the patients' sputum revealed helminth eggs, and serum samples were positive for antibodies to Paragonimus. All of the family members recovered following treatment with praziquantel. In the Paragonimus life cycle,

A) the crayfish are the definitive host and humans are the intermediate host.

B) humans are the definitive host and crayfish are the intermediate host.

C) both humans and crayfish are intermediate hosts.

D) both humans and crayfish are definitive hosts.

E) the source of the infection was the river water.

22) The encysted larva of the beef tapeworm is called a

A) redia.

B) cercaria.

C) cysticercus.

D) metacercaria.

E) proglottid.

23) Which of the following arthropods does NOT transmit diseases by sucking blood from a human host?

A) lice

B) fleas

C) houseflies

D) mosquitoes

E) kissing bugs

24) Which of the following statements about algae is FALSE?

A) They use light as their energy source.

B) They use CO2as their carbon source.

C) They produce oxygen from hydrolysis of water.

D) All are unicellular.

E) Some are capable of sexual reproduction.

25) Below are paired items referring to the heartworm Dirofilaria immitis. Which of the pairs is mismatched?

A) dog — definitive host

B) dog — sexual reproduction

C) mosquito — vector

D) mosquito — definitive host

E) None of the pairs is mismatched.

26) All of the following are characteristic of algae EXCEPT which ONE of the following?

A) Most are photoautotrophs.

B) They are currently classified as plants.

C) They may be unicellular or multicellular.

D) Some produce harmful toxins.

E) They mostly live in aquatic habitats.

27) A definitive host harbors which stage of a parasite?

A) miracidium

B) cyst

C) adult

D) larva

E) All of the answers are correct.

28) What do tapeworms eat?

A) intestinal bacteria

B) host tissues

C) red blood cells

D) intestinal contents

E) plant matter

29) Giardia and Trichomonas are unusual eukaryotes because they

A) are motile.

B) lack mitochondria.

C) lack nuclei.

D) do not produce cysts.

E) do produce cysts.

30) The life cycle of the fish tapeworm is similar to that of the beef tapeworm. Which of the following is the most effective preventive measure?

A) salting fish before eating

B) refrigerating stored fish

C) cooking fish before eating

D) wearing gloves while handling fish

E) not swimming in fish-infested waters

31) Which of the following is the most effective control for malaria?

A) vaccination

B) treating patients

C) eliminate Anopheles mosquitoes

D) eliminate the intermediate host

E) None of these is an effective control.

32) In the microscope, you observe multinucleated amoeboid cells with sporangia that form spores. This is a(n)

A) ascomycete.

B) cellular slime mold.

C) Euglenozoa.

D) tapeworm.

E) plasmodial slime mold.

33) You observe a mass of amoeba-like cells that swarm together, form a stalk, and produce spores. This is a(n)

A) ascomycete.

B) cellular slime mold.

C) Euglenozoa.

D) tapeworm.

E) plasmodial slime mold.

34) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

A) nematodes — complete digestive tract

B) cestodes — segmented body made of proglottids

C) trematodes — flukes

D) nematodes — many are free-living

E) cestodes — all are free-living

35) Which of the following is a nucleated, unicellular organism that, if you changed the incubation temperature, would form filaments with conidiospores?

A) ascomycete

B) cellular slime mold

C) euglenozoa

D) tapeworm

E) plasmodial slime mold

36) Which of the following organisms is photoautotrophic protozoan?

A) oomycote

B) cellular slime mold

C) Euglena

D) Phytophthora

E) plasmodial slime mold

37) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

A) tick — Rocky Mountain spotted fever

B) tick — Lyme disease

C) mosquito — malaria

D) mosquito — Pneumocystis

E) mosquito — encephalitis

38) Which of the following groups of algae does NOT produce compounds that are toxic to humans?

A) diatoms

B) dinoflagellates

C) green algae

D) red algae

E) None of the answers is correct; all of these groups of algae produce compounds toxic to humans.

39) The cells of plasmodial slime molds can grow to several centimeters in diameter because

A) they have organelles.

B) they distribute nutrients by cytoplasmic streaming.

C) the large surface can absorb nutrients.

D) they form spores.

E) they have a mouth to ingest nutrients.

40) Assume you have isolated a multicellular heterotrophic organism that produces coenocytic hyphae, motile zoospores, and cellulose cell walls. It is most likely a(n)

A) ascomycete fungus.

B) green alga.

C) oomycote alga.

D) tapeworm.

E) zygomycete fungus.

41) If a larva of Echinococcus granulosus is found in humans, humans are the

A) definitive host.

B) infected host.

C) intermediate host.

D) reservoir.

E) None of the answers is correct.

42) Ringworm is caused by a(n)

A) fungus.

B) cestode.

C) nematode.

D) protozoan.

E) trematode.

43) Yeast infections are caused by

A) Aspergillus.

B) Candida albicans.

C) Histoplasma.

D) Penicillium.

E) Saccharomyces cerevisiae.

44) All of the following are characteristic of lichens EXCEPT

A) they are arranged in foliose, fruticose, or crustose morphologies.

B) they are a major food source for tundra herbivores.

C) they are used as indicators of air pollution.

D) they are a symbiotic relationship between a fungus and a protozoan.

E) they serve as primary producers in rocky ecosystems.

45) You see acid-fast oocysts in a fecal sample from a patient who has diarrhea. What is the MOST likely cause?

A) Cryptosporidium

B) diatoms

C) Entamoeba

D) Giardia

E) Taenia

46) Plasmogamy, karyogamy, and meiosis are stages of the fungal sexual life cycle.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

47) Arthropod vectors are blood-sucking animals such as ticks, lice, and fleas that transmit microbial pathogens.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

48) Cercariae, metacercaria, redia, and sporocysts are all life cycle stages of trematodes.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

49) The Platyhelminthes group includes roundworms, tapeworms, and flukes.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

50) Some species of dinoflagellates produce neurotoxins that cause fish kills and red tides.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

51) Both the cellular slime molds and the plasmodial slime molds are members of the phylum Amoebozoa.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

52) In helminth life cycles, the organism that harbors the adult sexually reproductive phase of the parasite is called the intermediate host.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

53) The sporozoite, merozoite, gametocyte, and ring stages are all part of the Plasmodium life cycle.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

54) The insect vectors have six legs and include spiders, ticks, mosquitoes, and lice.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

55) Most cases of hookworm infection are acquired by ingestion of adult forms in contaminated food or water.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

56) The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the

A) mucous membranes of the respiratory tract.

B) mucous membranes of the gastrointestinal tract.

C) skin.

D) parenteral route.

E) All of these portals are used equally.

57) The ability of some microbes, such as Trypanosoma or Giardia to alter their surface molecules and evade destruction by the host's antibodies is called

A) antigenic variation.

B) lysogenic conversion.

C) virulence.

D) cytopathic effect.

E) cytocidal effect.

58) Most pathogens that gain access through the skin

A) can penetrate intact skin.

B) just infect the skin itself.

C) enter through hair follicles and sweat ducts.

D) must adhere first while their invasive factors allow them to penetrate.

E) must be injected.

59) All of the following contribute to a pathogen's invasiveness EXCEPT

A) toxins.

B) capsules.

C) cell wall components.

D) hyaluronidase.

E) coagulases.

60) Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A) Leukocidins destroy neutrophils.

B) Hemolysins lyse red blood cells.

C) Hyaluronidase breaks down substances between cells.

D) Kinase destroys fibrin clots.

E) Coagulase destroys blood clots.

61) Which of the following statements about exotoxins is generally FALSE?

A) They are more potent than endotoxins.

B) They are composed of proteins.

C) They are resistant to heat.

D) They have specific methods of action.

E) They are produced by gram-positive bacteria.

62) Endotoxins are

A) associated with gram-positive bacteria.

B) molecules that bind nerve cells.

C) part of the gram-negative cell wall.

D) excreted from the cell.

E) A-B toxins.

63) Cytopathic effects are changes in host cells due to

A) viral infections.

B) protozoan infections.

C) fungal infections.

D) bacterial infections.

E) helminthic infections.

64) Which of the following does NOT contribute to the symptoms of a fungal disease?

A) capsules

B) toxins

C) allergic response of the host

D) cell walls

E) metabolic products

65) All of the following are methods of avoiding host antibodies EXCEPT

A) antigenic changes.

B) IgA proteases.

C) invasins.

D) membrane-disrupting toxins.

E) inducing endocytosis.

66) The fimbriae of Neisseria gonorrhea and enteropathogenic E. coli are examples of

A) adhesins.

B) ligands.

C) receptors.

D) adhesins and ligands.

E) adhesins, ligands, and receptors.

67) Superantigens produce intense immune responses by stimulating lymphocytes to produce

A) endotoxins.

B) exotoxins.

C) cytokines.

D) leukocidins.

E) interferons.

68) Botulism is caused by ingestion of a proteinaceous exotoxin; therefore, it can easily be prevented by

A) boiling food prior to consumption.

B) administering antibiotics to patients.

C) not eating canned food.

D) preventing fecal contamination of food.

E) filtering food.

69) Symptoms of protozoan and helminthic diseases are due to

A) tissue damage due to growth of the parasite on the tissues.

B) waste products excreted by the parasite.

C) products released from damaged tissues.

D) tissue damage due to growth of the parasite on the tissues and waste products excreted by the parasite.

E) tissue damage due to growth of the parasite on the tissues, waste products excreted by the parasite, and products released from damaged tissues.

70) Which of the following statements about staphylococcal enterotoxin is FALSE?

A) It causes vomiting.

B) It causes diarrhea.

C) It is an exotoxin.

D) It is produced by Staphylococcus aureus growing in the host's intestines.

E) It is a superantigen.

71) Which of the following contributes to the virulence of a pathogen?

A) numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host

B) evasion of host defenses

C) toxin production

D) numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host and evasion of host defenses

E) numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host, evasion of host defenses, and toxin production

72) Lysogenic bacteriophages contribute to bacterial virulence because bacteriophages

A) give new gene sequences to the host bacteria.

B) produce toxins.

C) carry plasmids.

D) kill the bacteria, causing release of endotoxins.

E) kill human cells.

73) Twenty-five people developed symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea three to six hours after attending a church picnic where they ate a ham and green bean casserole with cream sauce. The most likely cause of this case of food intoxication is

A) botulinum toxin.

B) aflatoxin.

C) staphylococcal enterotoxin.

D) erythrogenic toxin.

E) cholera toxin.

74) Symptoms of intense inflammation and shock occur in some gram-positive bacterial infections due to

A) A-B toxins.

B) lipid A.

C) membrane-disrupting toxins.

D) superantigens.

E) erythrogenic toxin.

75) Which of the following mechanisms is used by gram-negative bacteria to cross the blood-brain barrier?

A) producing fimbriae

B) inducing endocytosis

C) producing toxins

D) inducing TNF

E) antigenic variation

76) Injectable drugs are tested for endotoxins by

A) the Limulus amoebocyte lysate test.

B) counting the viable bacteria.

C) filtering out the cells.

D) looking for turbidity.

E) culturing bacteria.

77) Endotoxins in sterile injectable drugs could cause

A) infection.

B) septic shock symptoms.

C) giant cell formation.

D) nerve damage.

E) no damage, because they are sterile.

78) Innate immunity

A) is slower than adaptive immunity in responding to pathogens.

B) is nonspecific and present at birth.

C) involves a memory component.

D) involves T cells and B cells.

E) provides increased susceptibility to disease.

79) All of the following protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection EXCEPT

A) multiple layers of cells.

B) tears.

C) saliva.

D) HCl.

E) the "ciliary escalator."

80) The function of the "ciliary escalator" is to

A) propel inhaled dust and microorganisms toward the mouth, away from the lower respiratory tract.

B) remove microorganisms from the gastrointestinal tract.

C) remove microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract.

D) trap microorganisms in mucus in the upper respiratory tract.

E) trap inhaled dust and microorganisms in mucus and propel it away from the lower respiratory tract.

81) Which of the following exhibits the highest phagocytic activity?

A) eosinophils

B) erythrocytes

C) macrophages

D) basophils

E) neutrophils

82) TLRs attach to all of the following EXCEPT

A) AMPs.

B) flagellin.

C) LPS.

D) PAMPs.

E) peptidoglycan.

83) A differential cell count is used to determine each of the following EXCEPT

A) the total number of white blood cells.

B) the numbers of each type of white blood cell.

C) the number of red blood cells.

D) leukocytosis.

E) leukopenia.

84) All of the following increase blood vessel permeability EXCEPT

A) kinins.

B) prostaglandins.

C) lysozymes.

D) histamine.

E) leukotrienes.

85) A child falls and suffers a deep cut on her leg. The cut went through her skin and she is bleeding. Which of the following defense mechanisms will participate in eliminating contaminating microbes?

A) mucociliary escalator

B) normal skin flora

C) phagocytosis in the inflammatory response

D) acidic skin secretions

E) lysozyme

86) Which of the following is an effect of opsonization?

A) increased adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms

B) increased margination of phagocytes

C) increased diapedesis of phagocytes

D) inflammation

E) cytolysis

87) Normal microbiota provide protection from infection in each of the following ways EXCEPT

A) they produce antibacterial chemicals.

B) they compete with pathogens for nutrients.

C) they make the chemical environment unsuitable for nonresident bacteria.

D) they produce lysozyme.

E) they change the pH of the environment.

88) Each of the following provides protection from phagocytic digestion EXCEPT

A) M protein.

B) capsules.

C) formation of phagolysosomes.

D) leukocidins.

E) biofilms.

89) The antimicrobial effects of AMPs include all of the following EXCEPT

A) inhibition of cell wall synthesis.

B) lysis of bacterial cells.

C) destruction of nucleic acids.

D) pore formation in bacterial membranes.

E) inhibition of phagocytosis.

90) The swelling associated with inflammation decreases when the fluid

A) returns to the blood.

B) goes into lymph capillaries.

C) is excreted in urine.

D) is lost as perspiration.

E) is transported into macrophages.

91) Which of the following statements about fixed macrophages is FALSE?

A) They are found in certain tissues and organs.

B) They develop from neutrophils.

C) They are cells of the mononuclear phagocytic system.

D) They are mature monocytes.

E) They gather at sites of infection.

92) Phagocytes utilize all of the following to optimize interaction with (getting to and getting hold of) microorganisms EXCEPT

A) trapping a bacterium against a rough surface.

B) opsonization.

C) chemotaxis.

D) lysozyme.

E) complement.

93) All of the following are effects of histamine EXCEPT

A) vasodilation.

B) fever.

C) swelling.

D) redness.

E) pain.

94) All of the following are effects of histamine EXCEPT

A) destruction of an injurious agent.

B) removal of an injurious agent.

C) isolation of an injurious agent.

D) repair of damaged tissue.

E) production of antibodies.

95) A chill is a sign that

A) body temperature is falling.

B) body temperature is rising.

C) body temperature is not changing.

D) the metabolic rate is decreasing.

E) blood vessels are dilating.

96) Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A) There are at least thirty complement proteins.

B) All of the complement proteins are constantly active in serum.

C) Factors B, D, and P cause cytolysis.

D) Complement activity is antigen-specific.

E) Complement increases after immunization.

97) Which of the following is mismatched?

A) diapedesis — movement of leukocytes between capillary walls cells out of blood and into tissue

B) chemotaxis — chemical degradation inside a phagolysosome

C) abcess — a cavity created by tissue damage and filled with pus

D) pus — tissue debris and dead phagocytes in a white or yellow fluid

E) scab — dried blood clot over injured tissue

98) All of the following are part of the mechanism of action of alpha and beta interferons EXCEPT

A) they bind to the surface of uninfected cells.

B) they are effective for long periods.

C) they initiate manufacture of antiviral proteins.

D) they disrupt stages of viral multiplication.

E) they initiate transcription.

99) The alternative pathway for complement activation is initiated by

A) lipid-carbohydrate complexes and C3.

B) C5-C9.

C) antigen-antibody reactions.

D) factors released from phagocytes.

E) factors released from damaged tissues.

100) The classical pathway for complement activation is initiated by

A) lipid-carbohydrate complexes and C3.

B) C5-C9.

C) antigen-antibody reactions.

D) factors released from phagocytes.

E) factors released from damaged tissues.

101) Activation of C3a results in

A) acute inflammation.

B) increased blood vessel permeability.

C) opsonization.

D) attraction of phagocytes.

E) cell lysis.

102) Neutrophils with defective lysosomes are unable to

A) undergo chemotaxis.

B) migrate.

C) produce toxic oxygen products.

D) attach to microorganisms and other foreign material.

E) engulf microorganisms and other foreign material.

103) Innate immunity includes all of the following EXCEPT

A) phagocytosis.

B) inflammation.

C) production of antibody.

D) production of interferon.

E) activation of complement.

104) After ingesting a pathogen, lysosomal enzymes produce all of the following EXCEPT

A) complement.

B) O2-.

C) H2O2.

D) OH.

E) HOCl.

105) Activation of C5-C9 results in

A) activation of C3.

B) fixation of complement.

C) lysis of microbial cells.

D) phagocytosis.

E) inflammation.

106) All of the following are true regarding NK cells EXCEPT

A) they are a type of lymphocyte.

B) they are found in tissues of the lymphatic system.

C) they have the ability to kill infected body cells and some tumor cells.

D) they destroy infected body cells by phagocytosis.

E) they release toxic substances that cause cell lysis or apoptosis.

107) Which of the following is involved in resistance to parasitic helminths?

A) basophils

B) eosinophils

C) lymphocytes

D) monocytes

E) neutrophils

108) Macrophages arise from which of the following?

A) basophils

B) eosinophils

C) lymphocytes

D) monocytes

E) neutrophils

109) All of the following pertain to fever EXCEPT that it

A) accelerates microbial growth by increasing iron absorption from the digestive tract.

B) stimulates T lymphocyte activity.

C) is caused by interleukin-1 and TNF-alpha coming into contact with the hypothalamus.

D) intensifies the effect of antiviral interferons.

E) can be initiated by specific types of pathogens.

110) All of the following are iron-binding proteins found in humans EXCEPT

A) lactoferrin.

B) transferrin.

C) hemoglobin.

D) siderophorin.

E) ferritin.

111) All of the following occur during inflammation. What is the first step?

A) diapedesis

B) margination

C) phagocyte migration

D) repair

E) vasodilation

112) The lectin pathway for complement action is initiated by

A) mannose on host membranes.

B) mannose on the surface of microbes.

C) lectins of the microbe.

D) gram-negative cell walls.

E) gram-positive cell walls.

113) All of the following are components of the inflammatory process EXCEPT

A) dilation of blood vessels.

B) release of histamines and prostaglandins.

C) chemotaxis.

D) diapedesis.

E) antibody synthesis.

114) Several inherited deficiencies in the complement system occur in humans. Which of the following would be the MOST severe?

A) deficiency of C3

B) deficiency of C5

C) deficiency of C6

D) deficiency of C7

E) deficiency of C8

115) Which of the following statements about the classical pathway of complement activation is FALSE?

A) C1 is the first protein activated in the classical pathway.

B) The C1 protein complex is initiated by antigen-antibody complexes.

C) C3 is not involved in the classical pathway.

D) Cleaved fragments of some of the proteins act to increase inflammation.

E) C3b causes opsonization.

116) Lysozyme and the antibiotic penicillin have similar mechanisms of action in that they both cause damage to the bacterial

A) cell membrane.

B) capsule.

C) cell wall.

D) DNA.

E) ribosomes.

117) Which non-specific defense mechanism is mismatched with its associated body structure or body fluid?

A) lysozyme — tears and saliva

B) mucociliary escalator — intestines

C) very acidic pH — stomach

D) keratin and tightly packed cells — skin

E) cerumen and sebum — ear

118) The dermis is composed of connective tissue and serves the primary purpose of providing direct protection from the external environment.

A) True

B) False

119) Microorganisms that are members of the normal microbiota are also known to cause disease.

A) True

B) False

120) Maturation of stem cells into mature blood cells occurs in the red bone marrow.

A) True

B) False

121) The inflammatory response can only be triggered by an infection.

A) True

B) False

122) Histamine and kinins cause increased blood flow and capillary permeability.

A) True

B) False

123) Aspirin alleviates pain, inflammation, and fever by inhibiting prostaglandins.

A) True

B) False

124) Complement proteins in their intact and unactivated form act as opsonins by binding to microorganisms and promoting phagocytosis.

A) True

B) False

125) Digestion of microorganisms occurs in phagosomes.

A) True

B) False

126) An example of a TLR would be peptidoglycan found in the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria.

A) True

B) False

127) Ingestion of certain lactic acid bacteria (LABs) has been shown to be beneficial for function and health of the intestinal tract.

A) True

B) False