. A hospital pharmacy is known as a:
a. closed-door
pharmacy.
b. inpatient pharmacy.
c. institutional
pharmacy.
d. all of the above.
b. inpatient pharmacy.
PTCB requirements for continuing education (CE) hours for pharmacy
technicians include:
a. thirty (30) credits every 2
years.
b. one credit must be in pharmacy law, and one must be in
medication and patient safety.
c. one credit must be in pharmacy
law, and one must be in counseling techniques.
d. A and B.
b. one credit must be in pharmacy law, and one must be in medication and patient safety.
Who oversees the State Boards of Pharmacy (BOPs)?
a. American
Pharmacists Association (APhA)
b. American Society of
Health-System Pharmacists (ASHP)
c. National Association of
Boards of Pharmacy (NABP)
d. Pharmacy Technician Certification
Board (PTCB)
c. National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP)
6. Which one of the following tasks is not considered a
non-discretionary duty for a pharmacy technician?
a. Managing the
inventory
b. Counseling patients
c. Billing
d. Stocking shelves
b.Counseling patients
Which one of the following difficult tasks is usually needed more as
an outpatient technician?
a. Intravenous (IV) preparation
b.
Knowledge of medications
c. Good communication skills
d. B and C
c. Good communication skills
. Which of the following is (are) true concerning closed door
pharmacies?
a. Closed-door pharmacies are not open to the
public.
b. They deliver medications.
c. Closed-door
pharmacies service long-term care facilities.
d. All of the above
statements are true.
d. All of the above statements are true.
. Which organization is the leader in providing course objective for
pharmacy technicians?
a. APhA
b. ASHP
c. NHA
d. PTCB
b. ASHP
All of the following statements are true about the Pharmacy
Technician Certification Examination (PTCE) except:
a. the PTCE
consists of 90 multiple choice questions.
b. the PTCE is a 2-hour
process.
c. all math is performed without a calculator.
d.
the PTCE is a computer-based examination.
c. all math is performed without a calculator.
Which certification examination for pharmacy technicians is accepted
in all 50 states?
a. ExCPT
b. PTCE
c. BOP
d. Both
A and B
c. BOP
Which organization offers specialty certification programs for
pharmacy technicians who want to enhance their skills and
marketability?
a. Pharmacy Technician Certification Board
(PTCB)
b. National Association of Chain Drug Stores
(NACDS)
c. American Society of Health-System Pharmacists
(ASHP)
d. National Pharmacy Technician Association (NPTA)
d. National Pharmacy Technician Association (NPTA)
Which of the following organizations provide career opportunities for
pharmacy technicians?
a. Hospital, retail, and long-term care
pharmacies
b. Prisons
c. Insurance and software
companies
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
A stat dose needs to be delivered within ____ minutes.
a.
5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
c. 15
All of the following are considered non-traditional jobs for pharmacy
technicians except:
a. poison control call center
operator.
b. nuclear pharmacy technician.
c. inpatient
pharmacy technician.
d. director or instructor of a pharmacy
technician training program.
c. inpatient pharmacy technician.
What does a CE with the letter “T” and the number “05” next to the
course indicate?
a. Designed for technicians
b. Worth five
CE credits
c. Concerns patient safety
d. Both A and C
d. Both A and C
. A good resume should always:
a. Be approximately one page
long
b. Contain a long list of references
c. Focus on
educational experience
d. All of the above
a. Be approximately one page long
The National Healthcareer Association (NHA):
a. Administers the
ExCPT examination
b. Administers the PTCE
c. Writes
questions for the PTCE
d. Scores the PTCE
a. Administers the ExCPT examination
The PTCB requires that a pharmacy technician complete one CPE in
__________ when renewing their PTCB certification.
a.
communication
b. medication/patient safety
c.
pharmacology
d. pharmacy calculation
b. medication/patient safety
Which pharmacy setting would find a pharmacy technician preparing
hyperalimentation products?
a. Closed-door pharmacy
b.
Inpatient pharmacy
c. Mail order pharmacy
d. Outpatient pharmacy
b. Inpatient pharmacy
The “Do Not Use List” provided by The Joint Commission (TJC)
outlines:
a. Medications that physicians should use only as a
last resort
b. Medications that need prior approval before being
prescribed
c. Commonly misinterpreted medical
abbreviations
d. Medication abbreviations that physicians are not
permitted to use
c. Commonly misinterpreted medical abbreviations
Which factors influence manufacturers’ choices of dosage
forms?
a. Desired speed of release and action
b. Target age
of the patient
c. Metabolism of the drug
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
The three major broad categories of dosage forms are:
a.
Capsules, tablets, and liquids
b. Solids, semisolids, and
liquids
c. Oral, topical, and IV
d. Extended release,
liquids, and tablets
b. Solids, semisolids, and liquids
Some tablets are enteric coated to:
a. Delay disintegration
until the tablets are through the alkaline environment of the
stomach
b. Make the tablets easier to swallow
c. Avoid the
release of the medication in the stomach, which could be
irritating
d. Accomplish all of the above
c. Avoid the release of the medication in the stomach, which could be irritating
A dosage that can be safely split in half is a(n):
a.
Delayed-release tablet
b. Capsule
c. Enteric-coated
tablet
d. Scored tablet
d. Scored tablet
Caplet refers to a(n):
a. Little capsule
b.
Different-shaped tablet
c. Easy-to-swallow form of tablet
d.
B and C
d. B and C
Which of the following is not a type of capsule?
a.
Gelatin
b. Pulvule
c. Caplet
d. Spansule
c. Caplet
Which of the following abbreviations does not refer to releasing
medication over an extended period?
a. IR
b. SA
c.
SR
d. XR
a. IR
What is the recommended abbreviation for subcutaneous
administration?
a. SubQ
b. SQ
c. SC
d. SUBCUT
d. SUBCUT
SSRI means:
a. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
b.
Sliding scale regular insulin
c. Selective serotonin regulation
injection
d. A and B
d. A and B
In which of the following dosage forms are medications often aimed at
a local action in the mouth or throat?
a. Sublingual
tablets
b. Ointments
c. Lozenges and troches
d. A and C
c. Lozenges and troches
Transdermal medication patches:
a. Are easily
administered
b. Should be folded in half with the sticky parts
together before disposing
c. Are void of medication once they are
removed
d. A and B
d. A and B
Which of the following liquids always contain alcohol?
a.
Syrup
b. Suspension
c. Elixir
d. Spray
c. Elixir
Syrups contain water and ______ with dissolved medications.
a.
alcohol
b. sugar
c. calcium
d. potassium
b. sugar
MDI stands for:
a. Measured dose inhaler
b. Measured drug
inhaler
c. Metered drug inhaler
d. Metered dose inhaler
d. Metered dose inhaler
HFA:
a. Is the abbreviation for hydrofluoroalkane
b.
Replaced chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) in inhalers in 2009
c. Is
more expensive than CFC
d. All of the above statements are true
d. All of the above statements are true
What can be added to a mixture of water and oil to bind them together
in a medication base?
a. Flavoring
b. Coloring
c.
Emulsifier
d. Mixer
c. Emulsifier
An example of an evacuation enema is:
a. Diazepam gel (Diastat)
for seizures
b. Antiinflammatory for ulcerative colitis
c.
Fleet Enema for constipation
d. A and C
c. Fleet Enema for constipation
__________ are a topical preparation that is designed to absorb
secretions.
a. Gels
b. Creams
c. Ointments
d. Pastes
d. Pastes
Rectal suppositories act _______ when they are used for nausea and
vomiting.
a. locally
b. systemically
c.
topically
d. A and C
b. systemically
PO is the abbreviation for:
a. By mouth
b.
Parenterally
c. Topically
d. Rectally
a. By mouth
What is an advantage of the IV route of administration?
a. Fast
onset of action
b. Low cost
c. Ease of preparation and
administration
d. Little or no time to counteract an overdose
a. Fast onset of action
What is the meaning of ADME?
a. Absorption, distribution,
metabolism, and elimination
b. Administration, distribution,
metabolism, and excretion
c. Absorption, delivery, metabolism,
and elimination
d. Absorption, delivery, metabolism, and excretion
a. Absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination
The primary site of drug metabolism in the human body is:
a.
Kidneys
b. Liver
c. Pancreas
d. Blood
b. Liver
Half-life refers to the time it takes for the:
a. Body to break
down and excrete one half of the medication
b. Body to absorb one
half of the dose
c. Plasma concentration of the medication to
decrease by 50%
d. A and C
d. A and C
37. Which of the following are ways a drug may be eliminated from the
body?
a. Urine and feces
b. Sweat
c. Breast
milk
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
Which of the following routes of administration have 100%
bioavailability?
a. Intramuscular (IM)
b. IV
c.
SUBCUT
d. B and C
ANS: B
b. IV
All of the following are excipients except:
a. Fillers
b.
Preservatives
c. Flavorings
d. Active ingredients
d. Active ingredients
Which term refers to the proportion of the drug that is delivered to
its destination and is available to the site of action for which it
was intended?
a. Bioavailability
b. Bioequivalence
c.
Pharmacodynamics
d. Pharmacokinetics
a. Bioavailability
Pharmacies that compound medications must comply with __________
__________.
a. FDA standards
b. NABP standards
c. USP
monographs
d. USP <797>
ANS: C
c. USP monographs
__________ contain medication in a glycol or oil base, such as
petrolatum.
a. Cream
b. Lotion
c. Ointment
d. Paste
c. Ointment