1) The primary source of RBCs in the adult human being is the bone marrow in the shafts of the long bones.
FALSE
2) Leukemia refers to cancerous conditions involving white blood cells.
TRUE
3) The immediate response to blood vessel injury is clotting.
FALSE
4) The process of fibrinolysis disposes of bacteria when healing has occurred.
FALSE
5) The normal RBC "graveyard" is the liver.
FALSE
6) Hemorrhagic anemias result from blood loss.
TRUE
7) White blood cells are produced through the action of colony-stimulating factors.
TRUE
8) Hemoglobin is made up of the protein heme and the red pigment globin.
FALSE
9) Myeloid stem cells give rise to all leukocytes.
FALSE
10) Each hemoglobin molecule can transport two molecules of oxygen.
FALSE
11) Diapedesis is the process by which red blood cells move into tissue spaces from the interior of blood capillaries.
FALSE
12) Positive chemotaxis is a feedback system that signals leukocyte migration into damaged areas.
TRUE
13) Clotting factor activation turns clotting factors into enzymes.
TRUE
14) Basophils increase in number when parasitic invasion occurs.
FALSE
15) Leukopenia is an abnormally low number of leukocytes.
TRUE
16) A person with type B blood could receive blood from a person with either type B or type O blood.
TRUE
17) Leukocytes move through the circulatory system by amoeboid motion.
FALSE
18) Granulocytes called neutrophils are phagocytic and are the most numerous of all white blood cell types.
TRUE
19) All lymphocytes are leukocytes, but not all leukocytes are lymphocytes.
TRUE
20) Myelocytic leukemia involves a cancerous condition of lymphocytes.
FALSE
21) Fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than does adult hemoglobin.
TRUE
1) A person with an extremely high count of neutrophils is likely suffering ________. A) a bacterial infection B) a viral infection C) anemia D) polycythemia
A
2) A person exhibiting suppression of immunity, clotting disorder as well as low oxygen carrying capacity is likely suffering which of the following? A) pernicious anemia B) hemorrhagic anemia C) aplastic anemia D) iron deficiency anemia
C
3) Which of the following would provide no benefit to a person suffering any one of the various types of anemia? A) treatment with synthetic erythropoietin B) supplemental bilirubin injection C) supplemental oxygen delivered by mask D) blood transfusion
B
4) Diabetes can cause a condition called nephrotic syndrome in which a person will suffer a loss of osmotic pressure with fluid from the plasma leaving blood vessels causing Edema (swelling). Which of the following is likely the cause of this condition? A) a loss of intrinsic factor from the plasma via the urine B) a loss of hypoxia-inducible factor via the urine C) release of albumin protein into the urine D) an increase in EPO production by the kidneys
C
5) Loss of fibrinogen within the plasma would most likely cause which of the following? A) fever with pain B) loss of blood clotting C) edema (swelling) D) pallor (pale skin)
B
6) Which of the following plasma components is most likely to rise in concentration during an acute infection? A) fibrinogen B) gamma globulins C) platelets D) albumin
B
7) With a patient that is administered an injection of erythropoietin (EPO) you would expect to see ________. A) increased white blood cell count B) decreased hematocrit C) increased hematocrit D) decreased white blood cell count
C
8) With a patient administered an injection of colony stimulating factor (CSF) you would expect to see ________. A) decreased Red blood cell count B) decreased white blood cell count C) increased Red blood cell count D) increased white blood cell count
D
9) Higher viscosity of blood will increase the amount of stress placed on the heart while it is pumping. Viscosity of blood is highest when ________. A) hemoglobin levels are lowest B) plasma levels are highest C) hematocrit is highest D) HbA1C levels are lowest
C
10) Which of the following would you expect to have the least effect on hematocrit percentage? A) prolonged or excessive fever B) living at higher altitude C) dehydration D) injection with erythropoietin (EPO)
A
11) People that have a single allele (gene copy) for sickle cell anemia are typically not sick from the disease and are said to be carriers of sickle cell trait. These people will more often live in the malaria belt of sub-Saharan Africa. The most likely explanation for this is ________. A) sickle cell trait is passed on to the biting mosquitoes as malaria B) the tropical climate attracts people with sickle cell trait C) malaria is a cause of sickle cell trait D) people with sickle cell trait have a better chance of surviving malaria
D
12) Lipids (either nutrients or hormones) are insoluble in water but are found traveling in the plasma of the blood. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this? A) Lipids are carried in plasma bound to soluble plasma transport proteins B) Lipids are carried only in the lymph which is primarily composed of unsaturated fats C) Lipids are carried inside blood cells D) Enzymes in the plasma convert lipids to soluble forms.
A
13) A mismatch of blood types during a transfusion is dangerous because ________. A) white blood cells from the donor's blood cause inflammation B) antibodies in the donor's plasma will attack and kill the recipient's healthy blood cells C) clotting factors in the donor's blood will cause unwanted clots known as thrombus D) preformed antibodies in the recipient's blood will bind and clump (agglutinate) the donated cells
D
14) If you centrifuge (spin) whole blood, you will find the red blood cells (erythrocytes) at the bottom of the tube and white blood cells atop them. This implies that ________. A) red blood cells are larger than white blood cells B) white blood cells are fewer in number than red blood cells C) white blood cells are smaller than red blood cells D) red blood cells have a greater density than white blood cells
D
15) If you centrifuge (spin) whole blood you will find the band of white blood cells and platelets (the Buffy coat) is much thinner than the packed red blood cells below it. This difference reflects the fact that ________. A) white blood cells are fewer in number than red blood cells B) white blood cells are smaller than red blood cells C) platelets are larger than red blood cells D) platelets are larger than white blood cells
A
16) Which two factors below make rapid and substantial blood loss life threatening? A) loss of immunity and loss of blood pressure B) loss of immunity and loss of carbon dioxide carrying capacity C) loss of clotting ability and loss of osmotic pressure D) loss of blood pressure and loss of oxygen carrying capacity
D
17) If a person is severely dehydrated you would expect to see all of the following except ________. A) lower plasma levels B) lower immunity C) higher blood viscosity D) higher hematocrit
B
18) Which of the following is not a functional characteristic of WBCs? A) granulosis B) diapedesis C) positive chemotaxis D) ameboid motion
A
19) What is the average normal pH range of blood? A) 4.65-4.75 B) 8.35-8.45 C) 7.75-7.85 D) 7.35-7.45
D
20) The special type of hemoglobin present in fetal red blood cells is ________. A) hemoglobin A B) hemoglobin B C) hemoglobin F D) hemoglobin S
C
21) Which of the choices below is the parent cell for all formed elements of blood? A) normoblast B) hemocytoblast C) polymorphonuclear cell D) megakaryocyte
B
22) Which blood type is generally called the universal donor? A) A B) B C) AB D) O
D
23) Which of the statements below is an incorrect or false statement? A) Blood typing for the Kell, Lewis, and Duffy factors is always done before a blood transfusion. B) When a transfusion reaction occurs, the oxygen-carrying capacity of the transfused blood cells is disrupted and the clumping of RBCs in small vessels hinders blood flow to tissues beyond those points. C) Transfusion of incompatible blood can be fatal. D) Unique to the ABO blood group is the presence in the plasma of preformed antibodies.
A
24) Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis? A) an increased number of RBCs B) decreased tissue demand for oxygen C) hypoxia of EPO-producing cells D) moving to a lower altitude
C
25) Blood reticulocyte counts provide information regarding ________. A) clotting ability of the blood B) rate of platelet formation C) WBC ability to defend the body against disease D) rate of erythrocyte formation
D
26) An individual who is blood type AB negative can ________. A) receive types A, B, and AB, but not type O B) donate to types A, B, and AB, but not to type O C) donate to all blood types in moderate amounts D) receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen
D
27) When neither anti-A serum nor anti-B serum clot on a blood plate with donor blood, the blood is type ________. A) A B) B C) O D) AB
C
28) All of the following can be expected with polycythemia except ________. A) increased blood volume B) high blood pressure C) low blood viscosity D) high hematocrit
C
29) No visible cytoplasmic granules are present in ________. A) eosinophils B) neutrophils C) basophils D) monocytes
D
30) Which of the following is not a phase of hemostasis? A) fibrinolysis B) vascular spasm C) platelet plug formation D) coagulation
A
31) Which of the following is not a structural characteristic that contributes to erythrocyte gas transport functions? A) produces energy anaerobically B) few organelles provide room for more hemoglobin C) biconcave shape D) mitotically active
D
32) A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and causing an appearance of large pale cells called macrocytes, is characteristic of ________. A) polycythemia B) sickle-cell anemia C) aplastic anemia D) pernicious anemia
D
33) Which of the following is not a cause of bleeding disorders? A) vitamin K deficiency B) a defect in the clotting cascade C) thrombocytopenia, a condition of decreased circulating platelets D) excess secretion of platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)
D
34) Which of the following is characteristic of all leukocytes? A) They are the most numerous of the formed elements in blood. B) They are nucleated. C) They are phagocytic. D) They have cytoplasmic granules.
B
35) Fred's blood was determined to be AB positive. What does this mean? A) There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma. B) He can only receive blood from a donor who is AB positive. C) Antibodies to A and B are present in the red cells. D) His blood lacks Rh factor.
A
36) Which of the following would not be a possible cause of sickling of red blood cells in someone with sickle-cell anemia? A) malaria B) vigorous exercise C) prolonged exposure to cold D) travel at high altitude
C
37) All of the following conditions impair coagulation except ________. A) vitamin K deficiency B) vascular spasm C) liver disease D) severe hypocalcemia
B
38) Hemolytic disease of the newborn will not be possible in which of the following situations listed below? A) if the child is type O positive B) if the father is Rh- C) if the child is Rh+ D) if the father is Rh+
B
39) What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production? A) liver B) brain C) kidney D) pancreas
C