Nester's Microbiology: A Human Perspective: Micro Final Flashcards

One of the earliest researchers to explore the use of chemicals to kill microbial pathogens was

The arsenic compound that proved highly effective in treating syphilis was called

The first example of an antimicrobial drug synthesized in the laboratory was

Prontosil effectively acted on streptococci when the drug was split by enzymes to produce

The use of Salvarsan and Prontosil to treat microbial infections were early examples of

Penicillin was discovered by

The most effective form of penicillin is

One of the earliest antimicrobials isolated from a bacterium was

Which of the following groups of microorganisms produces antibiotics?
Penicillium
Streptomyces
Bacillus
All of the choices are correct.
Penicillium AND Streptomyces

An antibiotic made by microorganisms and modified by chemists is called

The antimicrobials produced by some molds and bacteria are generally called

The toxicity of a given drug is expressed as the

A high therapeutic index is

Drugs that are bacteriostatic

Antimicrobials that kill microorganisms have the suffix

Antimicrobials that inhibit the growth of microorganisms have the suffix

Antibiotics that affect various strains of Gram-positive bacteria and various strains of Gram-negative bacteria are called

The rate of elimination of an antimicrobial is expressed as its

Antibiotics that are most likely to disrupt the normal flora are termed

Drugs that are more effective when taken together are called

If drugs are less effective when taken together than when each is taken separately, they are called

Antimicrobials may produce
allergic reactions.
toxic effects.
suppression of normal flora.
All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following bacteria have an innate resistance to penicillin?

Which of the following drugs target peptidoglycan?
penicillin
cephalosporin
vancomycin
bacitracin
All of the choices are correct.

All members of the penicillin family have

Penicillin-binding proteins
primarily function in the cell to bind to beta-lactam drugs.
are enzymes.
are involved in cell wall synthesis.
inhibit non-growing bacteria.
are enzymes AND are involved in cell wall synthesis.

Beta-lactamases

The major class(es) of antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis is/are
aminoglycosides.
tetracyclines.
macrolides.
bacitracins.

aminoglycosides, tetracyclines AND macrolides.

Inhibitors of protein synthesis typically key on

Which is true of aminoglycosides?
They are bacteriostatic.
They irreversibly bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit.
They block peptidoglycan synthesis.
They are bactericidal.
They irreversibly bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit AND they are bactericidal.

Fluoroquinolones typically target

Sulfonamide and trimethoprim are both
examples of metabolic inhibitors.
folate inhibitors.
protein synthesis inhibitors.
inhibitors of cell wall synthesis.
examples of metabolic inhibitors AND folate inhibitors.

Folic acid is ultimately used in the synthesis of

Sulfonamides are similar in structure to

Sulfonamides work as

Trimethoprim and sulfonamides have a(n)

Mycolic acids are targeted by isoniazid in the treatment of

The lowest concentration of a drug that prevents growth of a microorganism is the

The minimum bactericidal concentration is the lowest concentration of a specific antimicrobial drug that kills _______ of a specific type of bacteria.

The diffusion bioassay
determines the concentration of antimicrobial necessary to kill a bacteria.
determines the concentration of antimicrobial necessary to inhibit growth of a bacteria.
is similar in principal to the Kirby-Bauer test.
determines the concentration of antimicrobial in a fluid.
is similar in principal to the Kirby-Bauer test AND determines the concentration of antimicrobial in a fluid.

Which test is used to determine the susceptibility of a microorganism to an antimicrobial?

The zone size obtained in the Kirby-Bauer test is influenced by the drug's
size.
stability.
concentration.
All of the choices are correct.

A commercial modification of the disk diffusion test is called the

Bacteria may become antibiotic resistant due to
drug-inactivating enzymes.
alteration in the target molecule.
decreased uptake of the drug.
increased elimination of the drug.
All of the choices are correct.

The most common method of transfer of antimicrobial resistance is through the use of

Compliance problems are leading to a large increase in antibiotic resistant strains of

Antiviral drugs may target
uncoating.
nucleic acid synthesis.
viral assembly.
viral ribosomes.
uncoating, nucleic acid synthesis AND viral assembly.

The target of most antifungal drugs is

The key characteristic of a useful antimicrobial is selective toxicity.
True
False

Antimicrobials that have a high therapeutic index are less toxic to the patient.
True
False

Broad-spectrum antibiotics have minimal effect on the normal flora.
True
False

Certain antimicrobials may be life-threatening.
True
False

Drugs that target peptidoglycan do not affect eukaryotes.
True
False

Beta-lactam drugs are only effective against growing bacteria.
True
False

The MBC may be determined by an extension of the MIC.
True
False

Antimicrobial resistance can be due to spontaneous mutation or gene acquisition.
True
False

Viruses are very effectively treated with antibiotics.
True
False

Antifungal drugs usually target the cell membrane.
True
False

Most colds are probably caused by

The disease characterized by the appearance of a toxin-mediated rash that spares the area around the mouth and causes the tongue to look like the surface of a ripe strawberry is

Histoplasmosis may mimic tuberculosis.
True
False

Virulence factors used by S. pyogenes may be
Protein F.
M Protein.
a capsule.
Protein G.
All of the choices are correct.

The rhinovirus contains

Pneumonias are inflammatory diseases of the lung in which fluid fills the alveoli.
True
False

Rhinoviruses are effectively treated with antibiotics.
True
False

Adenoviral pharyngitis is effectively treated with
antibiotics.
lysozyme.
proteases.
nucleotide analogs.
None of the choices are correct.

Rebecca Lancefield showed that almost all the strains of b-hemolytic streptococci from human infections

Mycoplasma is effectively treated with cell wall inhibiting antibiotics.
True
False

The conjuctivae

The cause of strep throat is

The most common bacterial pathogen(s) involved with sinusitis, otitis media and conjunctivitis is/are
S. aureus
H. influenzae
S. pneumoniae
S. epidermidis
H. influenzae AND S. pneumoniae

Two relatively widespread North American lung mycoses are

The disease that closely resembles "strep throat" but is of viral origin is

Influenza is caused by

The eyes are protected from infection by
the washing action of the tears and eyelids.
the chemical action of lysozyme.
the use of contact lenses.
the dryness of the eye surface.
the washing action of the tears and eyelids AND the chemical action of lysozyme.

Of infectious diseases, pneumonia is a major killer in the general population.
True
False

Which is/are true of coccidioidomycosis and histoplasmosis?
They are both soil fungi.
They are both dimorphic fungi.
They are both life-threatening.
They may be treated with antibiotics.
They are both soil fungi AND they are both dimorphic fungi.

Which is used in the vaccination for C. diphtheriae?

Which is true of hantavirus?
It is a zoonosis involving mice.
It has three segments of single-stranded RNA.
The primary effect is to flood the lungs with fluid.
Shock and death occurs in 40% of the cases.
All of the choices are correct.

The causative agent of whooping cough is

About 60% of the bacterial pneumonias that require hospitalization of adults are caused by

The characteristic virulence factor of S. pneumoniae is

Mycoplasmal and klebsiellal pneumonias
have similar incubation periods.
have causative agents that lack cell walls.
are serious diseases often requiring hospitalization.
are both relatively mild diseases.
None of the choices are correct.

Who determined that the cholera outbreak in 1850s London was due to contaminated water and approached the problem by removing the pump handle at the contaminated site?

The passage from the mouth to the anus is termed the

Collections of bacteria that adhere to the surfaces of the teeth are called

The most common infectious disease of humans is

The principal cause of dental caries is

Part of the ability of S. mutans to produce dental caries depends on its ability to

This mineral, typically added to drinking water, makes enamel more resistant to dissolving in acid.

The chronic inflammatory process involving the gums and tissues around the teeth is called

H. pylori is, in part, able to survive in the stomach by its ability to produce

H. pylori appears to have some connection with
acid reflux disease.
ulcers.
dental caries.
stomach cancer.
ulcers AND stomach cancer.

Where in the body does the latent, non-infectious, non-replicating form of the herpes simplex virus persist?

A painful finger infection attributable to herpes virus is known as a(n)

Which of the following has shown some effectiveness in treating a herpes infection?

The viral disease that characteristically infects the parotid glands is

Mumps is a good candidate for elimination from the population due to
the existence of an effective vaccine.
a human only reservoir.
the absence of a latent state.
a single serotype.
All of the choices are correct.

Almost all bacterial intestinal infections may be attributed to
Vibrio spp.
C. jejuni.
Salmonella spp.
enterobacteria.
All of the choices are correct.

The initial attachment required for establishment of an intestinal infection is by

The toxins involved in intestinal infections typically
kill cells by inhibiting protein synthesis.
modify cell physiology resulting in increased secretion of water and electrolytes.
modify cell physiology resulting in decreased secretion of water and electrolytes.
kill cells by inhibiting DNA synthesis.
kill cells by inhibiting protein synthesis AND modify cell physiology resulting in increased secretion of water and electrolytes.

Cholera is the classic example of a(n)

The diarrhea of cholera has been described as

The symptoms of cholera are due to the action of

A common source of cholera infection is

Shigella and cholera toxin both

Shigella
are themselves nonmotile.
may be pushed from cell to cell by actin tails.
utilize pili to move.
utilize flagella to move.
are themselves nonmotile AND may be pushed from cell to cell by actin tails.

Which of the following groups contain diarrhea-causing E. coli?
enterotoxigenic
enteroinvasive
enteropathogenic
enterohemorrhagic
All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following groups give rise to a disease similar to that caused by Shigella sp.?

Which group produces a toxin somewhat similar to that produced by Shigella dysenteriae?

Most cases of Salmonella gastroenteritis have a(n)

The food products most commonly contaminated with Salmonella strains are

The animal(s) often associated with Salmonella strains is/are
turtles.
iguanas.
baby chickens.
ducks.
All of the choices are correct.

In which of these organs does a carrier of typhoid bacilli maintain the bacteria?

The most notorious typhoid carrier was

Which of these bacteria require a special medium and microaerophilic conditions?

A mysterious sequel to C. jejuni infections is

The animal(s) most often associated with C. jejuni is/are

Viral gastroenteritis in infants and children is most commonly caused by

Viral gastroenteritis that affects people of all ages and usually lasts less than 3 days is caused by

The most common chronic blood-borne infection in the U.S. is

Hepatitis A spreads via

HBV is mainly spread by
blood.
blood products.
semen.
saliva.
blood, blood products AND semen.

Intestinal protozoan infections are typically spread by

The most commonly identified waterborne illness in the United States is

Giardiasis may be contracted from
another person.
clear mountain streams.
chlorinated city water.
cold filtered beer.
another person, clear mountain streams AND chlorinated city water.

C. parvum may infect
dogs.
pigs.
cattle.
humans.
All of the choices are correct.

Most North American outbreaks of Cyclospora cayetanensis have been associated with

The oocytes of Cyclospora cayetanensis
are mature when

Entamoeba histolytica
causes amebiasis.
may form cysts.
cysts survive passage through the stomach.
may produce a cytotoxic enzyme.
All of the choices are correct.

Amebiasis

The bacteria primarily responsible for dental caries is Streptococcus mutans.
True
False

Sucrose is one of the major contributors to the development of dental caries.
True
False

H. pylori appears connected to stomach cancer and ulcers.
True
False

The saliva of asymptomatic carriers of herpes simplex is commonly infectious.
True
False

The mumps virus initially infects the respiratory tract.
True
False

Virulent strains of shigella typically carry a large plasmid.
True
False

The infectious dose of cholera is much larger than that for Shigella.
True
False

Cyclospora cayetanensis has, so far, not been identified with an animal source.
True
False

Cyclosporiosis is transmissable from person to person.
True
False

Both Giardia and C. parvum are resistant to chlorine.
True
False

Treponema pallidum
is the organism that causes syphilis.
is a spirochete.
can be more easily viewed with dark-field illumination.
has become less virulent over time.
All of the above are correct.

Urinary tract infections
are relatively rare.
are the most common nosocomial infections.
include puerperal fever.
are not considered STDs.
are the most common nosocomial infections AND include puerperal fever.

The urinary tract above the bladder usually shows

The normal flora of the lower urethra may show
Lactobacillus.
Staphylococcus.
Corynebacterium.
Bacteroides.
All of the choices are correct.

The normal flora of the genital tract of women is
affected by estrogen levels.
dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus.
unchanging.
typically composed of E. coli.
affected by estrogen levels AND dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus.

The most common urinary infection is

Bacterial cystitis
is a common nosocomial disease.
is typically caused by E. coli.
may occur through the use of a catheter.
is unusual in men under 50.
All of the choices are correct.

A disease in which the urinary system is infected from the bloodstream is known as

Leptospirosis is often contracted

Pregnant women with bacterial vaginosis are at risk of

The genital tract infection characterized by an unpleasant odor and an increase in clue cells is

Among the major causes of vulvovaginal candidiasis is/are
sexual promiscuity.
intense antibacterial treatment.
disruption of normal flora.
the use of oral contraceptives.
intense antibacterial treatment, disruption of normal flora AND the use of oral contraceptives.

Staphylococcus aureus is the causative agent of

Toxic shock syndrome

The incubation period of gonorrhea is approximately

Gonococci are parasites of

Gonococci selectively attach to certain epithelial cells by

Typically pathogenic Neisseria gonorrheae

Untreated gonorrhea in males may lead to
sterility.
urinary tract infections.
prostatic abscesses.
orchitis.
All of the choices are correct.

A frequent complication of untreated gonorrhea in women is

The treatment of neonates with an erythromycin ointment placed directly into the eyes is to prevent

Which of the following mimics the infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhea?

The most common reportable STD in the U.S. is

The disease that results from Chlamydia trachomatis possibly attaching to sperm and ascending into the fallopian tubes is

The infectious form of Chlamydia trachomatis is a(n)

The causative agent of syphilis is

Treponema pallidum is similar in shape to

Compared to the first big syphilis epidemic several hundred years ago in Europe, the strains of Treponema pallidum that cause syphilis today

Which of the following manifests itself in three clinical stages?

The presence of a hard chancre in primary syphilis is representative of the body's

During which stage of syphilis is the patient non-infectious?

In which disease is a gumma formed?

During which stage of pregnancy can T. pallidum cross the placenta and possibly infect the fetus?
first trimester.
second trimester.
third trimester.
any stage.

The reservoir of T. pallidum is the

The T. pallidum of syphilis can be transmitted by

The sexually transmitted disease characterized by painful genital ulcers is

Which of the following diseases may manifest themselves with painful genital ulcers?
chancroid
rubeola
herpes
leptospirosis
chancroid AND leptospirosis

Which of the following is a small Gram-negative rod requiring X-factor for growth?

The usual cause of genital herpes is

Which of the following viruses maintains a latent state in nerve cells?

Herpes simplex, like other ulcerating genital diseases,

The drug(s) used to treat genital herpes is/are
penicillin.
erythromycin.
acyclovir.
famciclovir.
acyclovir AND famciclovir.

The most common of the sexually transmitted viral diseases agents is

Human papillomavirus is

Which of the following is associated with cervical cancer?

A single exposure to HPV results in infection _______ of the time.

HPV
can integrate into the host's chromosome.
may be split into cancer-associated and wart-causing types.
infections always lead to cancer.
cannot infect newborns at birth.
can integrate into the host's chromosome AND may be split into cancer-associated and wart-causing types.

The human immunodeficiency virus is a(n)

HIV attacks a variety of cell types but the most critical are

HIV typically attaches to

HIV adversely affects
red blood cells.
nerve cells.
macrophages.
T helper cells.
macrophages AND T helper cells.

HIV may be present in
blood.
semen.
tears.
vaginal secretions.
blood, semen AND vaginal secretions.

Trichomoniasis is caused by a

Trichomonas vaginalis is an unusual eukaryote in that it

Women are more likely than men to get urinary tract infections due to anatomy.
True
False

Urine contains antimicrobial substances.
True
False

Toxic shock syndrome toxins are superantigens.
True
False

Most strains of gonococcus do not survive long outside the body.
True
False

There is no long-lasting immunity to gonorrhea and one may contract gonorrhea repeatedly.
True
False

The patient is non-infectious in the third stage of syphilis.
True
False

Genital herpes may be cured with the use of acyclovir or famciclovir.
True
False

Protease inhibitors are useful in curing AIDS.
True
False

Trichomonas vaginalis lacks mitochondria.
True
False

Herpes simplex enhances the spread of AIDS.
True
False

Typically C. albicans causes no symptoms.
True
False

Treponema pallidum
is the organism that causes syphilis.
is a spirochete.
can be more easily viewed with dark-field illumination.
has become less virulent over time.
All of the above are correct.

Urinary tract infections
are relatively rare.
are the most common nosocomial infections.
include puerperal fever.
are not considered STDs.
are the most common nosocomial infections AND include puerperal fever.

The urinary tract above the bladder usually shows

The normal flora of the lower urethra may show
Lactobacillus.
Staphylococcus.
Corynebacterium.
Bacteroides.
All of the choices are correct.

The normal flora of the genital tract of women is
affected by estrogen levels.
dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus.
unchanging.
typically composed of E. coli.
affected by estrogen levels AND dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus.

The most common urinary infection is

Bacterial cystitis
is a common nosocomial disease.
is typically caused by E. coli.
may occur through the use of a catheter.
is unusual in men under 50.
All of the choices are correct.

A disease in which the urinary system is infected from the bloodstream is known as

Leptospirosis is often contracted

Pregnant women with bacterial vaginosis are at risk of

The genital tract infection characterized by an unpleasant odor and an increase in clue cells is

Among the major causes of vulvovaginal candidiasis is/are
sexual promiscuity.
intense antibacterial treatment.
disruption of normal flora.
the use of oral contraceptives.
intense antibacterial treatment, disruption of normal flora AND the use of oral contraceptives.

Staphylococcus aureus is the causative agent of

Toxic shock syndrome

Gonococci selectively attach to certain epithelial cells by

Which of the following manifests itself in three clinical stages?

Which of the following is a small Gram-negative rod requiring X-factor for growth?

Which of the following viruses maintains a latent state in nerve cells?

The drug(s) used to treat genital herpes is/are
penicillin.
erythromycin.
acyclovir.
famciclovir.
acyclovir AND famciclovir.

The most common of the sexually transmitted viral diseases agents is

The human immunodeficiency virus is a(n)

HIV attacks a variety of cell types but the most critical are

HIV adversely affects
red blood cells.
nerve cells.
macrophages.
T helper cells.
macrophages AND T helper cells.

Trichomonas vaginalis lacks mitochondria.
True
False

Typically C. albicans causes no symptoms.
True
False

The scientist responsible for the development of the first anti-plague vaccine in 1866 was

The plague bacillus is known as

The circulation of an agent in the bloodstream is given a name ending in

The sac which surrounds the heart is called the

Which organism may be implicated in arteriosclerosis?

The fluid which bathes and nourishes the tissue cells is the

A visible red streak in an infected hand or foot is referred to as

The small bean-shaped bodies into which the lymphatic vessels drain are the

Blood and lymph may carry
antibodies.
complement.
lysozyme.
interferon.
All of the choices are correct.

The spleen, in part, functions to cleanse the

The condition that develops on a previously damaged heart valve is called

The most common agent(s) causing subacute bacterial endocarditis is/are

Which of the following can only be identified using PCR after valve surgery?

High levels of antibodies in patients with SBE tend to be of little use because

The inflammatory effects of immune complexes lodged in the kidney is called

Bacteria which cause subacute bacterial endocarditis may gain access to the bloodstream by
trauma.
dental procedures.
brushing teeth.
ingestion.
trauma, dental procedures AND brushing teeth.

Acute bacterial endocarditis differs from subacute bacterial endocarditis in the

Which of the following is more likely to cause fatal septicemias?

The material released from bacteria that may lead to shock and death in septicemia is

The cytokine released from macrophages that seems to play a major role in endotoxic shock is

Cytokine(s) released from macrophages in response to exposure to endotoxin is/are
tumor necrosis factor.
interleukin-1.
protein A.
alpha-toxin.
tumor necrosis factor AND interleukin-1.

Although endotoxemia affects many organs, the organ most seriously and irreversibly affected is the

Enlargement of lymph nodes or spleen is often associated with
tularemia.
brucellosis.
plague.
gastritis.
tularemia, brucellosis AND plague.

The common name for tularemia is

The development of lymph node enlargement in the region of a skin ulcer after a tick or insect bite or handling of a wild animal suggests

Which of the following is/are able to survive phagocytosis?
Brucella sp.
Staphylococcus aureus
Francisella tularensis
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Brucella sp, Francisella tularensis AND Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Brucellosis may also be known as
Bang's disease.
undulent fever.
Hansen's disease.
rabbit fever.
Bang's disease AND undulent fever.

Traditionally the animal(s) associated with hosting Brucella is/are
cattle.
dogs.
goats.
pigs.
All of the choices are correct.

The "Black Death" may also be known as

The disease responsible for the death of approximately ¼ the population of Europe from 1346 to 1350 was

Symptoms of plague appear in

The causative agent of plague is

Yersinia pestis typically contains

The major virulence factors of Yersinia pestis are carried on

The virulence factor of Yersinia pestis that is a protease that destroys C3b and C5a is

Yops proteins, produced by Yersinia pestis,

The plague is typically transmitted via the bite of

Enlargement of lymph nodes or spleen is often associated with
tularemia.
brucellosis.
plague.
infectious mononucleosis.
All of the choices are correct.

The cause of infectious mononucleosis is

Epstein-Barr virus may become latent in

The production of heterophile antibody is associated with

Which of the following may be transmitted by saliva?
infectious mononucleosis
rabies
plague
yellow fever
infectious mononucleosis AND rabies

Yellow fever is transmitted by

The disease caused by an enveloped single-stranded RNA arbovirus of the flavivirus family is

Which of the following is caused by a protozoan infection?

Which of the following is transmitted by mosquitoes?
plague
yellow fever
malaria
tularemia
yellow fever AND malaria

Which species of Plasmodium causes the most serious form of malaria?

In which of the following diseases does the spleen enlarge?
infectious mononucleosis
malaria
leishmaniasis
brucellosis
All of the choices are correct.

Muscles aid the flow of venous blood.
True
False

Septicemia is only caused by Gram-negative bacteria.
True
False

Both Francisella tularensis and Mycobacterium tuberculosis are able to survive phagocytosis.
True
False

Gram-positive organisms are more likely to cause fatal septicemias than other infectious agents.
True
False

The major virulence factors of Yersinia pestis are carried on a plasmid.
True
False

Yellow fever is caused by a protozoan infection.
True
False

Both malaria and yellow fever are transmitted by mosquitoes.
True
False

Plasmodium falciparum causes the most serious form of malaria.
True
False

In a malarial infection, only sporozoites can infect the human liver.
True
False

What is the difference between 'bacteremia' and 'septicemia?'